In many jurisdictions, whether a spouse is entitled to a share of a house owned by one partner prior to marriage depends on local laws regarding marital property. In community property states, assets acquired before marriage typically remain separate property unless they are commingled. In equitable distribution states, the court may consider the contribution of both spouses to the property, potentially granting the spouse some interest. It's crucial to consult legal advice specific to the relevant jurisdiction for precise guidance.
NO.NO.NO.NO.
Yes. A surviving spouse is entitled to a statutory share of an intestate (without a will) estate in most jurisdictions. You can check the laws in your state at the related question link provided below.
You may be entitled to an interest by law if you live in a community property state. In addition, you cannot disinherit your spouse in any state except Georgia. If a spouse is left too little or no property he/she can waive the will and take an "elective share" in the estate. That share would be determined by the statutory share in an intestate estate (without a will). You may not receive the entire property but you will receive at least a statutory share. See the related question below for intestate shares state-by-state.
No. There is no right to any share. In the United States a spouse has no right to the other's inheritance.No. There is no right to any share. In the United States a spouse has no right to the other's inheritance.No. There is no right to any share. In the United States a spouse has no right to the other's inheritance.No. There is no right to any share. In the United States a spouse has no right to the other's inheritance.
If the partners were married the spouse is entitled to a share of the property by law. You can check the laws of intestacy in your state at the related question below. Children or other relatives of the deceased may also be entitled to a share.
Surviving spouses in Colorado are entitled to property that was shared with the deceased partner, even if no will explicitly says so. The survivor also has the ability to be named as the personal representative of the estate.
It depends if there is a will or trust involved. If a spouse dies the other spouse usually gets everything unless the family home or other items have been intrusted or willed.AnswerSee the related question link below for the laws of intestacy for your state. The laws of intestacy determine a surviving spouse's share of an estate. Generally, even if the surviving spouse is disinherited by will, they can claim a share under the doctrine of election. That share is generally equal to the share they would receive if the decedent had died intestate.
Depends which spouse was actually paying the mortgage/paid for the house. If the deceased spouse paid for the house in it's entirety, it is their choice (which they will state in their will) of who the house goes to. If they do not state, it will probably go to the other spouse unless another family member contests the decision (for example, if you'd just married the spouse, who has adult offspring, they would be entitled to challenge the decision of the house going to yourself). If the mortgage/payment of the house was 50:50, it's not clearcut unless the deceased did leave their share of the house to you. (Although your 50% is still legally yours). If they wish to leave it to someone else, you can go to a court to contest the decision. If the house was a gift, it depends which of you it was actually gifted too. Although being married to the spouse does usually protect your right to the house (unless you were responsible for their death).
No, the spouse is entitled to their share. The laws of intestacy will probably give her all of the property.
You can check your state laws of intestacy at the link provided below. Choose your state then click on "Read the text". Generally in Colorado the distribution of an intestate estate with a surviving spouse and children depends on whether the surviving children are also the children of the surviving spouse.
No. Property purchased and held solely by a person before marriage belongs solely to that person and the spouse is not entitled to any portion if the couple divorce. In some cases when circumstances allow, the judge can grant larger portions of other joint marital property or assets to the non home owner spouse in order to achieve equitable distribution.
It depends upon who owns the property. If both names are on the title then each is legally entitled to 50% of the net proceeds. If the property is in the name of the "other spouse" alone then they have no legal obligation to share the proceeds. Of course, that might change if the couple was in the process of a divorce and the divorce had been filed.