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Some scholars think that Shakespeare may have written Macbeth to flatter King James (who was, after all, the patron of his theatrical company). The whole bit about Banquo's heirs being kings refers to the legend that Banquo was the ancestors of the house of Stuart, who were the ancestors of King James. The prophetic depiction of "a line of kings" and Macbeth's line "What? Will the line stretch to the crack of doom?" is a flattering suggestion that the Stuart line would never die out, and that they would continue to be kings. In fact, it did not last beyond James's great-grandchildren. Also, James was interested in witches so there are witches in the play.

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William Shakespeare's later work occurred during the reign of James I?

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