William Shakespeare's fictional play takes place in Medieval Scotland.
The characters in Macbeth were largely fictional, though Macbeth himself is based on a real Scottish king who reigned in the 11th century. Lady Macbeth is thought to have been inspired by the historical figure Gruoch, who was the wife of Macbeth.
No, Richard III was based in England.The only Shakespeare play based in Scotland is Macbeth.
Yes
Macbeth or Mac Bethad mac Findlaích was king of Scotland for 17 years from 1040 to his death in 1057.
She is based on a historical person called Gruoch.
Macbeth came from Scotland witch is part of the British Ilse Shakespeare based this play round Banquo and Macbeth because of king James the 1of England because of his Scottish heritage
Macbeth's desire to eliminate Banquo is based on his fear of Banquo's descendants eventually taking the throne. The prophecy that Banquo's descendants will inherit the kingship fuels Macbeth's paranoia and drives him to eliminate any potential threats to his own rule. Additionally, Banquo's close relationship with Macbeth and knowledge of the witches' prophecy make him a target for Macbeth's schemes.
He was seriously whipped
There was a Lady Macbeth historically, but we know nothing of her personality. Her character was entirely created by the genius of William Shakespeare. He didn't base it on anything.
No, although Macbeth is based on real people, the events that take place are either exaggerated or entirely fictional for the sake of entertainment
And then Macbeth asked Macbeth if he confronted Macbeth on killing Macbeth with Macbeth.
I assume you meant "Why did Shakespeare make Macbeth a villan?" Well, what could the storyline have been if he wasn't a villan? Shakespeare's Macbeth was based on the real Macbeth. He murdered his king, Duncan, and became king. I guess that means that the real Macbeth was a villan, and so Shakespeare only kept it that way, showing it wasn't Shakespeare that made his character of Macbeth a villan.