Yes, a judgment can affect the sale of a house. If a property owner has a judgment against them, it may result in a lien being placed on the property, making it difficult to sell until the judgment is resolved. Potential buyers may be deterred by the encumbrance or may require the seller to clear the judgment before completing the sale. Additionally, unresolved judgments can impact the seller's creditworthiness and ability to obtain financing for the sale.
It will depend on the contract and conventions where the foreclosure took place. In many states where homes loans are secured by a trust deed the lender can only force the sale of the house and there is no possibility of a deficiency judgment when the sale was a trustee sale. If you really want to know have a lawyer in your state review your contract and default action the lender has filed. Lenders can file for a judicial action which can include a deficiency judgment if they believe there was mortgage fraud and the borrowers has assets.
Yes. California allows income garnishment by judgment creditors. The law also allows a judgment creditor to place a lien on real property owned by the judgment debtor. Generally the homestead exemption will protect a primary residence from a forced sale for debt owed. Judgment creditors rarely request a forced sale of a primary residence because it is a complicated and lengthy process and is seldom profitable enough for implementation.
The bank will start foreclosure proceedings. They will file a complaint against you in court and seek judgment. The house can then be sold in a sale or auction.
Yes, a property can still be sold even if an heir has a judgment against them, but the judgment may create complications. The judgment could result in a lien on the property, which must be addressed before or during the sale process. It's advisable to consult with a legal professional to understand the implications and ensure that all debts are settled appropriately to avoid potential issues with the sale.
A court order to force the sale of real estate to pay a judgment is typically referred to as a "judicial sale" or "sheriff's sale." This process allows for the property to be sold in order to satisfy the outstanding judgment that the owner owes.
If the judgment was not perfected as a lien against the property (which is almost impossible in Florida), the property is not encumbered and the title should be clear, thereby not causing a problem with the sale. The judgment holder will probably be able to execute the judgment as a bank account levy and/or seize funds garnered from the sale of the homestead.
It will depend on the contract and conventions where the foreclosure took place. In many states where homes loans are secured by a trust deed the lender can only force the sale of the house and there is no possibility of a deficiency judgment when the sale was a trustee sale. If you really want to know have a lawyer in your state review your contract and default action the lender has filed. Lenders can file for a judicial action which can include a deficiency judgment if they believe there was mortgage fraud and the borrowers has assets.
California is a community property state, therefore how the house is titled or whether the debt is joint is not relevant. The main factor would be if the homestead exemption is large enough to protect the property from a forced sale by the judgment holder.
It depends on whether the judge determines that the house is "necessary" and if it is a significant financial resource. If you have a lot of equity and the house is a little "ostentatious", he/she may determine that it isn't really necessary and that you can get by with a much more modest house. But it will all depend on the determination of the judge. * Although it is possible in the majority of US states for a judgment creditor to file a lien against real property, perfect the lien and then request a forced sale, the action is rarely implemented by the judgment creditor. In most cases the state or federal homestead exemption will protect a primary residence from a forced sale. Please be advised that a homestead exemption is not always automatically covered by state law and the homeowner is required to file a declaration of homestead for a primary residence to be protected. Also, a few states (Texas is one) have established laws that directly forbid the forced sale of a primary residence by a judgment creditor.
It is the sale of goods and/or property owned by the judgment debtor. The sale is conducted by an officer of the court (usually a sheriff) to satisfy a creditor judgment or in conjunction with some other type of court order.
Yes. California allows income garnishment by judgment creditors. The law also allows a judgment creditor to place a lien on real property owned by the judgment debtor. Generally the homestead exemption will protect a primary residence from a forced sale for debt owed. Judgment creditors rarely request a forced sale of a primary residence because it is a complicated and lengthy process and is seldom profitable enough for implementation.
The bank will start foreclosure proceedings. They will file a complaint against you in court and seek judgment. The house can then be sold in a sale or auction.
Generally yes, against the husband's interest only. However, they would need to find the property first and obtain a judgment in Connecticut.
The answer depends on the terms of the ownership.
The policy is 'in force' for the policy period as long as you still own the house.
The forced sale of a primary residence is possible by a judgment creditor. However, this seldom happens as the procedure is lengthy and costly, generally the judgment creditor will place a lien on the property thereby encumbering it so that it cannot be refinanced, have the title transferred or sold until the lien is satisfied. Whether or not a valid lien is possible and/or a forced sale of the property is viable depends largely on how the property is titled.