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The IRR reinvestment rate assumption is the mistaken assumption that the IRR of a project implicitly assumes that all positive cash flows from the project that occur in periods before the end of the project will be reinvested at the rate of IRR per period until the end of the project.

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How does the reinvestment rate assumption affect the NPV versus IRR conflict?

Apparently the NPV and IRR are methods to obtain capital budgets. The reinvestment rate assumption affects both methods because it is what determines now much incoming cash flow is reinvested into project.


In what sense is a reinvestment rate assumption embodied in the npv irr and mirr methods what is the assumed reinvestment rate of each method?

IRR assumes that all cash flows are reinvested at the project's rate of return, seldom a defensible assumption. Since NPV discounts future cash flows at the investor's cost of capital, it more accurately represents the value of a project. It assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the cost of capital. This is a good assumption so long as the financing can be repaid in stages so as to reduce interest or equity cost. MIRR enables a project to be described with the simplicity of a percentage rate of return, as with IRR, but does not assume that cash flows can be effectively reinvested in the project at the calculated rate of return. Instead, cash flows are assumed to be reinvested at any given rate, such as a bank interest rate.


What is the problem with reinvestment rate assumption?

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What is the definition of reinvestment assumption?

The definition of reinvestment assumption is an assumption made concerning the rate of return that can be earned on the cash flows generated by capital budgeting projects. The cash flow can be interest, earnings, dividends, or rent.


Why is the IRR not the MIRR the industry standard rate of return?

The IRR assumes all cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. All you need are the property cash flows and the initial outlay to solve the equation. So, it is a simple and objective calculation. For reference, the calculation is as follows: NPV = 0 = CF0/(1+IRR)^0 + CF1/(1+IRR)^1 + ... + CFn/(1+IRR)^n The MIRR assumes that positive cash flows are reinvested at a reinvestment rate. MIRR also assumes that negative cash flows are financed by the company at a finance rate. For reference the calculation is as follows: (( NPV of positive cash flows at reinvestment rate ) / ( NPV of negative cash flows at finance rate ))^(1/(n-1) - 1 This makes MIRR unsuitable as an industry standard. First, different firms have different reinvestment rates and different finance rates. So, MIRR cannot be used to compare investments purchased or sold by different companies. Second, the rates will change over time, thus making it impossible to compare MIRR's at different intervals. MIRR is best used internally by a particular firm choosing between several investments at a given time.


Is the irr the same as the discount rate?

No, the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is not the same as the discount rate. The IRR is a metric used to evaluate the profitability of an investment, while the discount rate is the rate used to discount future cash flows to their present value.


Is irr an annual rate?

Yes, the term "IRR" stands for Internal Rate of Return, which is an annualized rate of return used to evaluate the profitability of an investment over time.


What reinvestment rate assumptions are implicitly made by the net present value and internal rate of return methods and which method is best?

NPV's assumption is more conservative and realistic. because in order to accept the project, the IRR must be greater than the cost of capital.Both methods assume that a project will cost some money up front, and then produce cash flow returns over a period of time. Both assume that these cash flows will be reinvested by the firm.


What does IRR stand for?

Internal Rate of Return


What is the definition of IRR?

internal rate of return


What are the criticism on equivalent yield in valuation?

Critics argue that equivalent yield, which is calculated using the reinvestment rate assumption, may not reflect the actual reinvestment opportunities available. Additionally, it assumes that coupon payments can be reinvested at the equivalent yield, which may not always be achievable in practice. Lastly, equivalent yield does not account for the risk associated with reinvestment, potentially leading to inaccurate valuation results.


What are the advantages of reinvestment rate risk over interest rate risk?

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