If you have never used morpine it can be dangerous iv, the typical dose is 1mg to 4mg iv.
approximately 200mg codeine for similar effects to 30mg oral morphine (not IV!)
30 mg of Morphine IR is equal to approximately 8 mg of Diluadid, so there is about a 4mg morphine to 1 mg of dilaudid ratio. So 45 mg of morphine would be equal to 5.6 mg of dilaudid. To answer your question, 45 mg of Morphine IR would stronger than taking the 4 mg of dilaudid.
I believe that IV and IM morphine are three times more potent when injected rather than metabolized through the intestines. So I believe the correct answer would be 30 mg oral to 10mg IV
The strength of Morphine depends on the concentration of the drug. If 6 mg Morphine is the prescribed strength, a little over 1/2 a cc of Morphine 10 mg needs to be administered. Morphine is supplied in 5 mg/ml and 10 mg/ml ampules. CW: For water, a cc is (just about) a mg. For stuff dissolved in water, a cc is about a mg. For Hg, doesn't hold.
The concentration of morphine can vary, so it's important to know the specific concentration of the morphine solution. However, for a standard concentration of 1 mg/mL, 2 mg of morphine would be equal to 2 mL.
A millilitre (mL) is a unit of volume. A milligram (mg) is a unit of mass."20 mL" of morphine would imply that the morphine is suspended in a liquid, and depending on morphine's solubility in this liquid and so forth, there can be a different amount of morphine per mL. Usually a liquid suspension like this will be "X mg per mL" or "X mg/mL" as labelled on an ampoule or something similar.For example, you one may find an ampoule that contains 4 mg/mL of morphine (in which case the answer would be 80 mg) or one that contains 20 mg/mL (in which case the answer would be 400 mg), etc.There is no fixed answer, *but* you should know that a morphine dose is measured in mg and not mL, so if all you know is the amount of mL, it's not safe to measure out a dose.
PRN means "as needed." For example, a provider may prescribe morphine 0.2 mg IV q4 hours PRN, so if the patient is not in pain, the nurse would not give it.
which is stronger morphine 5 or morphine 60
By giving antihistamines. Hydroxyzine HCl (Iterax) 10-25 mg tablet/IV every 12 hours or Diphenhydramine 25-50 mg 1 capsule every 6-8 hours, as needed.
Morphine is up to 10 times stronger than codeine on a mg per mg basis. Codeine is not an active pain killer until it is converted to morphine in the liver. People have different rates of conversion so it is hard to give an exact dose equivalent.
The morphine. What you're comparing is 10mg of oxycodone vs 60mg of morphine. Mg by mg oxycodone is a bit stronger than morphine, but 60 mg's of morphine would be about equivalent to 40 mg's of oxycodone, which would be four of the 10/650 pills. I don't have a conversion chart in front of me, but this is a pretty close estimate. Even though 4 of the Percocet would be equal to about 60mg of the Morphine you dont want to take the Perocet for a long period of time because it is only 10mg of oxycodone and 650mg of Acetominophine which you are told not to consume to much of because the liver damage it will cause.
In terms of measurement, milligrams (mg) and milliliters (ml) represent different quantities: mg measures mass, while ml measures volume. Morphine's density varies depending on its formulation, but generally, morphine solutions contain a specific concentration that can be converted between these units. Therefore, whether mg is "higher" than ml depends on the concentration of morphine in the solution being referenced.