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In 1789, free black men could not universally vote in the United States. Voting rights were largely determined by state laws, and most states restricted suffrage to white male property owners. A few states allowed free black men to vote, but these instances were exceptions rather than the rule, and the general trend was toward disenfranchisement. Overall, the political landscape at the time favored white landowners, effectively excluding most free black men from the electoral process.
What else can I help you with?
Why could only white men over 21 who owned property could vote in 1789?
If they owned property.
How man white men with land could vote in 1789?
yes because america was there place and they rule it
Who would have been able to vote if the declaration had been put into feet.?
The declaration had nothing to do with voting and it was published declaring the colonies free of the king. It is the constitution that sets out voting laws. In 1789 only white men who were landowners and over 21 could vote. Until 1971 you had to be 21 to vote, but since the it has been 18.
Which was true about Athenian government A. All people could vote. B. All men could vote. C. All free men and women could vote. D. Only free men could vote.?
D. Only free men could vote. In ancient Athens, the right to vote was limited to free male citizens, excluding women, slaves, and foreign residents. This meant that while a significant portion of the population was excluded from the democratic process, eligible citizens had the opportunity to participate in governance.
When the constitution first went into effect in 1789 the right to vote in the United states was restricted to while property owners?
Yes, and no one could vote for president. This was done in Congress.
Could people with disabilities vote in 1789?
no
Could free black women vote today?
yes
Could a man with land vote in 1789?
yes
Why could only white men over 21 who owned property could vote in 1789?
If they owned property.
In 1789 could free black women vote?
In New Jersey, and only New Jersey, all inhabitants had the right to vote in 1780. As long as they could provide some evidence of wealth (Not a lot). As wealth was generally tied to the male in a household during this time it may be difficult to say that women could actually vote at this time, but it wouldn'tsurpriseme if some did!Not to say they didn'tparticipatein the politicalupheavalgoing on at the time.
How man white men with land could vote in 1789?
yes because america was there place and they rule it
Who would have been able to vote if the declaration had been put into feet.?
The declaration had nothing to do with voting and it was published declaring the colonies free of the king. It is the constitution that sets out voting laws. In 1789 only white men who were landowners and over 21 could vote. Until 1971 you had to be 21 to vote, but since the it has been 18.
Did people who have been in prison vote in 1789?
Did people who have been in prison voted in the 1789
Could free black women vote in1789?
Free black women couldn't vote until the 19th Amendment was passed 1920; however, laws stayed in effect in the south until the South the prevented black men and women from voting until the Voting Rights Act of 1965 did away with white primaries and poll taxes.
Was Washington given every vote in 1789?
no he wasn't given every vote
Which was true about Athenian government A. All people could vote. B. All men could vote. C. All free men and women could vote. D. Only free men could vote.?
D. Only free men could vote. In ancient Athens, the right to vote was limited to free male citizens, excluding women, slaves, and foreign residents. This meant that while a significant portion of the population was excluded from the democratic process, eligible citizens had the opportunity to participate in governance.
When the constitution first went into effect in 1789 the right to vote in the United states was restricted to while property owners?
Yes, and no one could vote for president. This was done in Congress.
