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Strictly speaking, no.

Here is what's "different": In 1911 before the Communist Party, the peasants did not own land for themselves; they were comparable to serfs of the feudalistic age in Western History. The peasants then worked for rich people to produce rice and were paid little.

In 1950 after the Communist party took power, the Communist Party wished to redistribute the land, ie. take away land from the rich landlords and give to the peasants. This Idea was never carried out as then all the land belonged to the country. (This practice is still in effect today in modern China) The peasents pay was slightly higher than under the landlords, but due to inflation, this change is easily neglectable.

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18y ago

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