The German workers took passive action and went on strike. Those who weren't on strike worked slowly and deliberately made faulty goods.
The Ruhr is a river in germany.
The immediate trigger was the French (and Belgian) occupation of the Ruhr in January 1923, followed by the German campaign of passive resistance.
There is no direct link between the two. In 1923 France and Belgium occupied the Ruhr, which was Germany's leading industrial area. The reason given was that Germany had allegedly defaulted on reparations. The Germans responded with a policy of passive resistance, that is non-cooperation; but there was also some active resistance and a number of inhabitants of the Ruhr were shot by the French. The whole business was very damaging to the German economy. What outraged Germans (and also the British government) was that France went *beyond* the conditions of the Versailles Treaty. One of the French aims was to set up a separate republic in the Ruhr and the Rhineland. It created much bitterness. The whole business of going beyond Versailles probably caused even more resentment than the Versailles Treaty itself. Despite all this, Germany recovered from the effects of the occupation quickly and from 1924 onwards enjoyed some of the prosperity of the Roaring Twenties.
German occupation of Europe..................
Germans were angry that their leaders had signed the Treaty of Versailles. When Germany failed to pay reparations ordered by the Treaty of Versailles, France occupied the Ruhr Valley.
The immediate trigger was the occupation of the Ruhr by France and Belgium in Janaury 1923. The Germans in the Ruhr responded with a general strike.
In January 1923 to 1925 the ruhr was between France & Belgium .
French occupation of the Ruhr occurred in 1923 as retaliation for Germany's failure to make reparations payments following World War I. The occupation aimed to enforce payment and weaken German economy to push for compliance.
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The Germans occupied.
The Ruhr is a river in germany.
They burned the city down
Nothing compaired to the numbers that will die in the Iranian oil fields when Israel strikes.
The immediate trigger was the French (and Belgian) occupation of the Ruhr in January 1923, followed by the German campaign of passive resistance.
There is no direct link between the two. In 1923 France and Belgium occupied the Ruhr, which was Germany's leading industrial area. The reason given was that Germany had allegedly defaulted on reparations. The Germans responded with a policy of passive resistance, that is non-cooperation; but there was also some active resistance and a number of inhabitants of the Ruhr were shot by the French. The whole business was very damaging to the German economy. What outraged Germans (and also the British government) was that France went *beyond* the conditions of the Versailles Treaty. One of the French aims was to set up a separate republic in the Ruhr and the Rhineland. It created much bitterness. The whole business of going beyond Versailles probably caused even more resentment than the Versailles Treaty itself. Despite all this, Germany recovered from the effects of the occupation quickly and from 1924 onwards enjoyed some of the prosperity of the Roaring Twenties.
No, the word "Ruhr" does not have an umlaut. It is spelled as "Ruhr" without any diacritic marks.
No, the Ruhr is in Germany.