By 1550, Spain had solidified its control over vast territories in the Americas through a combination of military conquests, strategic alliances, and the establishment of colonial administrations. Key events included the conquests of the Aztec and Inca Empires, led by figures like Hernán Cortés and Francisco Pizarro, which allowed Spain to access immense wealth and resources. Additionally, the Spanish Crown implemented systems such as encomiendas to regulate labor and extract tribute from Indigenous populations, further entrenching their dominance in the region. These factors collectively enabled Spain to maintain and expand its influence during the mid-16th century.
Because America does not own Cuba...
The british and definately not the spanish
It evolved into the Philippine American War which was ugly, brutal, long and bloody, but the US prevailed and the Philippines finally became independent after WW2.
The Philippine Islands.
Also spelt "savanna", the word hails from the 1550's Spanish sabana, earlier zavana from Taino (Arawakan) zabana.
bribed them
Because America does not own Cuba...
No, the US has never had control of Brazil.
By 1550, Mexico and Central America were largely under Spanish control following the Spanish conquest. The Aztec Empire in Mexico fell to Spanish conquistadors led by Hernán Cortés in 1521, and subsequent conquests extended Spanish rule throughout Central America. The region was integrated into the Viceroyalty of New Spain, which encompassed a vast territory in the Americas.
To answer a question we need a what, who, where, when, how, or why. Your question lacks the where and when.
Spanish
by defeating the spanish armada
# the colonizatio # the colonizatio
The defeat of the Spanish Armada.
The british and definately not the spanish
The defeat of the Spanish Armada
The French wanted to drive the Spanish out of Kansas, so they could gain control over trade with the Indians.