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The respectful term "lord" refers to anyone at any rank in the feudal system who has vassals of his own - even the poorest knight might have a servant who would call him "lord".

The feudal system is based on all land being owned by the king or by the Church as an institution. The king allowed his earls to hold huge swathes of this land; they in tern allowed barons to hold land from them; the barons might have several lower-ranking knights holding parcels of land from them and all these "lords" (for every one of them was addressed as such) had peasants to do all the manual work who would be given small sections of land in return for rents and services.

So "lord" does not signify any particular level in this hierarchy - every nobleman at every level was a lord.

Each wealthy knight was assessed according to his wealth, property and the total area of lands he held - this was expressed as the "knight's fee". For example in 1135 the important knight Richard Basset held 184.25 carucates of land, which was assessed as being 15 knight's fees. In 1166 the Lincolnshire baron Lambert de Scoteny held 16.25 carucates of land, assessed at 10 knight's fees.

As part of their feudal obligations, Richard Basset was required to provided 15 fully-equipped knights and Lambert de Scoteny 10, or the financial equivalent, if called upon by the king. If they chose to pay money instead of providing the full quota of knights, this was called scutage (shield-money).

So the answer is that a "lord" at any level in the feudal hierarchy was assessed according to his land holdings and he might have 20 or more knight's fees - or just 1 (himself), but these could be just theoretical knights who were represented by a cash payment instead.

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13y ago

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