Yes, historically, property ownership was often a restriction on the right to vote. Many societies, particularly in the 18th and 19th centuries, limited voting rights to landowners, believing that only those with a vested interest in the community should participate in governance. This criterion was seen as a way to ensure that voters had a stake in the stability and prosperity of the state. Over time, many countries moved toward broader suffrage, eliminating property requirements to promote more inclusive democratic participation.
Men were given the right to vote even if they didn't own property.
Men who owned property
The right to vote and own property
White men who owned property, excluding Catholics and Jews.
In colonial America, only white males who owned property, and were over the age of 18 were allowed to vote.
Colonial women couldn't vote or own property.
a long time ago women weren't allowed to vote or to own property.
Right to own property, Right to vote, Equal pay
Men were given the right to vote even if they didn't own property.
White male property owners have always had the right to vote in the United States.
only men who owned property were allowed to vote :)
Right to vote, right to own property,
men who owned property
Men who owned property
which one was eliminated in the right to vote race,gender,religious test or property ownership
The right to vote and own property
White men who owned property, excluding Catholics and Jews.