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Yes, historically, property ownership was often a restriction on the right to vote. Many societies, particularly in the 18th and 19th centuries, limited voting rights to landowners, believing that only those with a vested interest in the community should participate in governance. This criterion was seen as a way to ensure that voters had a stake in the stability and prosperity of the state. Over time, many countries moved toward broader suffrage, eliminating property requirements to promote more inclusive democratic participation.

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AnswerBot

1d ago

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