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This was an act of appeasement designed to obtain "Peace in our Time" and was reached with Germany without consultation with Czechoslovakia, the country and people most effected. It was a concession made in the hope of avoiding the Second World War. It failed to satisfy Adolf Hitler.
What else can I help you with?
Why did Britain and France agree to the Czech Sudetenland to Hitler?
The Munich Agreement was signed in Munich , Germany .
When did Hitler brings Austria and the sudetenland into his Reich?
Hitler occupied the Czechoslovakian Sudetenland in late 1938, after the Munich Pact was organized by France and Great Britain on September 28, 1938.
What country did Germany use the blitzkrieg attack on?
Sudetenland ,Austria,Poland,France........
Was Britain and France appeasement reasonable?
According to some, appeasement was reasonable because Great Britain and France were in no shape to fight another war with Germany. The only other option was appeasement, which allowed Germany to take control of the Sudetenland. Some say that it encouraged Germany to demand even more, but to most officials in France and Great Britain, appeasement was the most reasonable solution.
When did Britain and France get involved in the World War 2?
France and Britain declared war against Germany together when the Germans invaded Poland on the 1st of September 1939, As they had previously guaranteed Polish Independence. Hitler did not expect them to declare war and though that they would still comply with his demands, like they did when he reoccupied the Rhineland, conducted the Ausschluss, and ceded the Sudetenland to him in 1938.
What part of czechosolvakia did Hitler take over while France and great Britain watched?
The Sudetenland
Why did Britain and France agree to the Czech Sudetenland to Hitler?
The Munich Agreement was signed in Munich , Germany .
Which policy did France and Great Britain follow by allowing Hitler to annex the Sudetenland of Czechoslovakia in 1938?
The policy of appeasement.
When did Hitler brings Austria and the sudetenland into his Reich?
Hitler occupied the Czechoslovakian Sudetenland in late 1938, after the Munich Pact was organized by France and Great Britain on September 28, 1938.
Why did Britain and France fail to support Czechoslovakia during the sudeten crisis?
in 1938, Britain and France signed the Munich pact with Germany and Italy. The pact permitted German annexation of border areas of Czechoslovakia (sudetenland).
Why couldn't France and Great Britain inflict military force on Germany when it took the Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia?
C, trust me. BYU agrees
How did Hitler get the sudetenland?
he declared interest in it and the Italian dictator Mussolini proposed a conference with Germany Britain France and Italy called the munich conference. here Britain and France agreed that the Germans could have the sudetan part of Czechoslovakia.
Which territory did Great Britain and France let Germany have at Munich Conference?
The Sudetenland - which was the German speaking section of Czechoslovakia. The agreement was signed on 29 September 1938.
What country was a victim of great Britain and France's policy of appeasement?
Czechoslovakia, which was invaded by Germany with permission from Britain and France given at the Munich Conference. You ask which country was a "victim" of Britain's and France's willingness to appease Hitler, but you are not understanding the basic facts. The Sudetenland wanted to be part of Germany because they were Germans and they were separated from Germany after World War 1. So they were glad to get reconnected to Germany. Hitler used the issue of Sudetenland against Czechoslovakia. Czechoslovakia (including Sudetenland) were not part of Germany before WW1, but part of Austria-Hungary. When Austria-Hungary was broken-up as result of WW1, then Hitler decided to seize German-speaking Austria and then create a crisis w/ Czechoslovakia. Czechoslovakia was seen as the victim of appeasement. By loosing the Sudetenland, they lost valuable territory rich in lignite, coal. So there was a victim - Czechoslavakia.
What was the significance of the 1938 Munich agreement?
The Munich Agreement was significant because Britain and France believed that by handing Sudetenland back to Germany was the only way to save the world from another war.
What is the result of the turning point in the revolutionary war?
France allied with the colonist and declare war on Great Britain.
What did Hitler declared at the Munich Conference?
Britain and France gave in to Hitler's demands for the Sudetenland. Czechoslovakia was not present at this conference, and it should be noted that this land contained key heavy industries, as well as 3 million GermansIn September 1938 Germany, Britain, France, and Italy met in Munich to decide what action, if any, to take concerning German demands for territory in Czechoslovakia. This conference came to be known as the Munich Conference. While there, Britain and France decided to allow Germany to annex the areas near the German border (the Sudetenland). Hitler said that it was his "final demand" in Europe.The action of Britain and France is regarded as appeasement.
