0
What else can I help you with?
In what colonies could freed slaves vote during colonial times?
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
Why women could not vote in England in the 19th century?
because the women did not have the rights to do it
How did the colonists in the New World make their political institutions more democratic?
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
Could men vote in Britain between the years 1900- 1918?
Around 2/3 of the male population could vote, anyone over 21, sane and not in prison, the guy who did it before was clearly a tw*t and wrong x
What percentage of men could vote in 1750 to 1900?
Between 1750 and 1900, the percentage of men who could vote varied significantly by country and region. In the United States, for example, voting rights were primarily limited to white property-owning men, which meant only about 15-20% of the population could vote at the beginning of this period. In the United Kingdom, the Reform Acts gradually expanded voting rights, with the percentage of eligible male voters rising from around 3% in 1832 to approximately 60% by 1884. Overall, the percentage of men who could vote during this period was generally low and heavily influenced by property and class restrictions.
Who could vote before 1815 in England?
Citizens of England were allowed to vote in the 18th century.
In what colonies could freed slaves vote during colonial times?
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
Which groups of people were permitted to vote in colonial?
50 to 75% of white males could vote which was more than England.
Why women could not vote in England in the 19th century?
because the women did not have the rights to do it
How did the colonists in the New World make their political institutions more democratic?
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
How did the colonists in the new world make their political institution more democratic?
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
Could men vote in Britain between the years 1900- 1918?
Around 2/3 of the male population could vote, anyone over 21, sane and not in prison, the guy who did it before was clearly a tw*t and wrong x
Does England have the right to vote?
No,they have monarchy government,which is ruled by a queen or a king and stays within one royal family.If the had a democracy,which is ruled by the people,they could vote. The United Kingdom which includes England does have the right to vote in Government Elections. It has nothing to do with the Queen and Monarchy.
What is an example of patriarchy?
American prior to 1920 when women won the right to vote. England prior to Queen Elizabeth. Most industrialized countries prior to 1900. Iraq prior to the current war. Iran currently. Shall I continue?
Who could vote in England during the 18th-century?
Rich male landowners.
What percentage of men could vote in 1750 to 1900?
Between 1750 and 1900, the percentage of men who could vote varied significantly by country and region. In the United States, for example, voting rights were primarily limited to white property-owning men, which meant only about 15-20% of the population could vote at the beginning of this period. In the United Kingdom, the Reform Acts gradually expanded voting rights, with the percentage of eligible male voters rising from around 3% in 1832 to approximately 60% by 1884. Overall, the percentage of men who could vote during this period was generally low and heavily influenced by property and class restrictions.
Do you have to vote in England?
No you dont have to
