the first governor of the Indies, with jurisdcition over all the lands Columbus discovered, was Francisco de Bobadilla. He was replaced by Nicol‡s de Ovando, who was followed by Bishop Fonseca, Jean le Sauvage, then Bishop Fonseca again. After that, it was Gaspar de Gricio, followed by Lope de Conchillos, who was followed by Francisco de los Cobos. After that, there was a ruling junta.
The Aztec Empire was the last empire to rule Mexico before the Spanish came.
Cuban rebellion against Spanish rule - supported by American sugar planters - yellow press coverage of the Spanish backlash led to the Spanish-American War
Hernan Cortes is credited with conquering the Aztec Empire and bringing much of Mexico under Spanish rule.
The Babylonian Empire
Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.Computers and aircraft would have helped the Romans to rule their empire, big time.
The Aztec Empire was the last empire to rule Mexico before the Spanish came.
Spanish rule ended in the Philippines in 1898 when the United States defeated Spain in the Spanish-American War.
This question doesn't make a lot of sense as the British held on to their dependencies longer. The Spanish Empire ended in the Americas with the Spanish/American War of 1898 and the loss of Cuba. The other parts had been lost many years before. Canada was only really independent from the UK Parliament in 1931 and Newfoundland from 1948.
He wanted a cohesive empire with local participation and integration.
No. In 1898 the US and Spain fought the Spanish-American War, and Spain lost its overseas empire to the Americans, but the Americans never ruled Spain or tried to.
The last empire to rule Mexico before the arrival of the Spanish was the Aztec Empire. Established in the 14th century, it reached its height in the early 16th century under the leadership of Emperor Moctezuma II. The Aztecs were known for their advanced society, impressive architecture, and complex religious practices. Their empire fell to Spanish conquistadors led by Hernán Cortés in 1521.
Cuban rebellion against Spanish rule - supported by American sugar planters - yellow press coverage of the Spanish backlash led to the Spanish-American War
The Aztec Empire was replaced by Spanish colonial rule after the Spanish conquest led by Hernan Cortes in 1521. The Spanish established New Spain in the region which eventually became part of the Viceroyalty of New Spain. This marked the beginning of Spanish dominance in the region.
The Aztec's were the last Indian empire in Mexico. They fell to the Spanish invasion in 1521. This was the beginning of 300 years of colonial rule in Mexico.
Spain ruled the world from the 15 Century till the begining of the Spanish war of Independence near the 18s. The first glimpse of decline of the Spanish Empire was after the trafalgar sea battle that literally wipe out the Spanish Navy forces and encourage the Spanish American Colonies to get independent.
Hernan Cortes is credited with conquering the Aztec Empire and bringing much of Mexico under Spanish rule.
Filipino rebels became involved in the Spanish-American War by initially collaborating with the United States, thinking they would gain independence from Spanish rule. However, the Treaty of Paris in 1898 transferred Philippine control from Spain to the United States, leading to the Philippine-American War as the rebels fought against American colonial rule.