Some companies can. If you produce a standardized product, you maintain rigid production schedules and you have a very good supply chain, you can definitely achieve zero inventory. I run a job shop. I do a modified zero-inventory system. The things I use the most of, I keep a lot of inventory on hand. The things I rarely use are ordered as necessary.
The zero error of vernier calliper is defined as :-The zero error is equal to the distance between the zero of the main scale and the zero of the vernier scale.
yes it is possible by turning and milling..................
Key Differences:Simultaneous production and consumptionCritical aspects of services are intangibleThere are no inventories or buffersThere can be considerable variability in service deliveryService usually consists of "substantive" and "peripheral" componentsBy S. M. Zakaria, BBA, Stamford University Bangladesh.
to achieve quality product
An independent demand is a demand that is not based on the demand for another item while a dependent demand is based on the demand for another item. For example, the demand for chairs of a table and the table itself is based on the demand for the table. The table in this example is the item with independent demand. Knowing this, one can forecast an independent demand while dependent demands are calculated based on the independent demand item. Business to business independent demands tend to be demands for such items as capital goods, office supplies, MRO (maintenance, repair, and operating) items, and anything else for which the dependency is unknown. Independent demands are usually handled with standalone purchase orders, although some items might be covered by contractual relationships such as volume, price and other agreements.
Not possible ya
Yes - for a while. Or indefinitely, if you will accept zero acceleration as "constant acceleration".
The GDP of a country - or even a large community - cannot be zero. Zero GDP implies that there is no output (goods or services), nobody spends anything (on things from inventories or imports), nobody earns anything.
No, it is not possible for an object's mass to be zero.
I think the term you're looking for is cryogenic processing. The NIST defines cryogenic temperatures as those below 93.2 Kelvin. Slowly reducing temperatures, to prevent damage from thermal shock, to below 93.2 Kelvin is a cryogenic process.
"Absolute Zero" refers to zero on the kelvin scale for temperature. Absolute Zero, or 0 kelvin ( = -459.67 degrees Fahrenheit = -273.15 degrees Celsius), is the coldest possible temperature. It is probably impossible to achieve this temperature, but you can get very close.
Yes, zero could be a possible solution to the equation.
NO, a vector will not be zero if one of its components will be zero.
what is benefits of holding inventories
yes, it is possible to divide zero by a number. It is not possible to divide a number by zero though, which is undefined.
Division by zero is not possible in arithmetic.
no, the charge would have to be of equal sign to achieve this.