answersLogoWhite

0

In the United States, no. Any conveyance would be construed as a conveyance in fee.

In the United States, no. Any conveyance would be construed as a conveyance in fee.

In the United States, no. Any conveyance would be construed as a conveyance in fee.

In the United States, no. Any conveyance would be construed as a conveyance in fee.

User Avatar

Wiki User

11y ago

What else can I help you with?

Related Questions

Which would not be considered a government or nonprofit organization?

safeguarding private property and enforcing contracts


Are nonprofit organizations liable for property taxes?

Nonprofit organizations who own property (real or personal) are responsible for property taxes unless they qualify for tax exempt status. Nonprofit organizations are not automatically assumed to have met the qualifications for tax exemption status in most states and must file information with local taxing authorities, who then determine their taxable status. Qualifying for nonprofit status under IRS section 501 (c)(3) does not automatically mean the organization qualifies for property tax exempt status in many states. In some states the nonprofit organization must own and occupy the property for which the exemption is sought (they can't use it for another purpose or lease it to others).


If you obtain an item free from a nonprofit organization is it legal to sell the item?

Perfectly legal. You are not non-profit, so selling any of your personal property is acceptable.


Can you rent out a shared ownership property?

Normally, you can’t rent out a shared ownership property without permission. These homes are for you to live in, not to rent to other people. But if your situation changes, you can ask the housing company, and they might say yes sometimes.


Can a lien be placed on a house from a bank debt from a tenant?

No. A tenant has no ownership interest in the property and so the property is not available to their creditors.No. A tenant has no ownership interest in the property and so the property is not available to their creditors.No. A tenant has no ownership interest in the property and so the property is not available to their creditors.No. A tenant has no ownership interest in the property and so the property is not available to their creditors.


Can your partner have a legal letter of half ownership of house without name on house deeds?

No. Ownership of real property is evidenced by a deed not by a letter.No. Ownership of real property is evidenced by a deed not by a letter.No. Ownership of real property is evidenced by a deed not by a letter.No. Ownership of real property is evidenced by a deed not by a letter.


When were the property ownership qualification for voting abolished?

By 1828 the property ownership qualification for voting had begun to be abolished, but it was not until 1840 that property ownership qualification were completely abolished.


How do you show ownership of property when someone else lives on the property?

Ownership of real property is evidenced by a deed or a probated estate.


What is property ownership paper called?

In the United States ownership of real property is evidenced by a deed.


A fee simple absolute represents total ownership of personal property?

A fee simple ownership represents absolute ownership of real property.


Who receives the ownership card in Monopoly when a player purchases a property?

When a player purchases a property in Monopoly, they receive the ownership card for that property.


Can a life estate creator and owner change their mind and get the property back?

No. They have transferred ownership to the new owners. They no longer have any ownership interest in the property. If they want the property back the new owners must agree to transfer it back by deed.No. They have transferred ownership to the new owners. They no longer have any ownership interest in the property. If they want the property back the new owners must agree to transfer it back by deed.No. They have transferred ownership to the new owners. They no longer have any ownership interest in the property. If they want the property back the new owners must agree to transfer it back by deed.No. They have transferred ownership to the new owners. They no longer have any ownership interest in the property. If they want the property back the new owners must agree to transfer it back by deed.