A second mortgage already has a lien on the home. If you don't pay the second mortgage they will foreclose and take the home. By paying off the first mortgage you just make it easier for the bank to get their money back out of the property when they sell it.
A foreclosure really has nothing to do with the amount of equity in a property. Banks foreclose on properties because the borrower has failed to pay on the mortgage note for 90 days or more. Most properties that are foreclosed on today usually have negative equity in them due to decreased property values.
Nothing can be modified in the mortgage after a foreclosure since the right to entry and sale has been exercised and the mortgage is no longer active. The foreclosure is final, it has been reported to the credit bureaus and once completed it cannot be revisited.Nothing can be modified in the mortgage after a foreclosure since the right to entry and sale has been exercised and the mortgage is no longer active. The foreclosure is final, it has been reported to the credit bureaus and once completed it cannot be revisited.Nothing can be modified in the mortgage after a foreclosure since the right to entry and sale has been exercised and the mortgage is no longer active. The foreclosure is final, it has been reported to the credit bureaus and once completed it cannot be revisited.Nothing can be modified in the mortgage after a foreclosure since the right to entry and sale has been exercised and the mortgage is no longer active. The foreclosure is final, it has been reported to the credit bureaus and once completed it cannot be revisited.
HOMEOWNER SHOULD SIGN NOTHING...the 2nd mortgage is cut off in the foreclosure action against the 1st mortgage as it affects real property...if the 2nd mortgager holder is looking for a signature, then they should get it from the judge
nothing...it remains a lien on the property and a debt which is assumed by the successful bidder at the auction of the 2nd mortgage
No. If the property is about to be foreclosed, the landlord has no obligation to give the tenant any notice of anything. After the foreclosure, the landlord will have nothing to do with the tenant.
Then the landlords mortgage will go into default and if he/she continues to not pay the mortgage the property will be foreclosed on, and yes, you will be left in on the street. there is nothing that says (unless it is in specifically in your rental agreement) what your land lord has to do with the money.
First, default just means not paying. The mortgage company has nothing to do with the tenants until there is a foreclosure sale. The two owners on the deed are the landlords. After a foreclosure sale, the bank must give at least 90 days notice to tenants.
It depends....the 2nd mortgage holder can buy out your first mortgage and then foreclose on the entire property , the chances are higher of this happening is the 2nd mortgage is kinda large or if they are held by the same lender. If the 2nd mortgage holder decides not to buy the first mortgage out then typically nothing with happen because the first mortgage holder is in control. The 2nd mortgage cannot foreclose on the first mortgage so keep the first mortgage payments current.If the 2nd does not buyout the first then the lien with remain on the property and you will be require to pay it off if you sell or refinance the property down the road.Mortgage loan officer PAIn Texas the law is: http://www.avvo.com/legal-answers/tx-foreclosure-second-trust-deed-4498.html
Nothing. Just keep paying your rent. The landlord's relationship with his bank has nothing to do with you. And, if he does get foreclosed, federal law gives you lots of time before the bank can move you out.
Check the laws in your state, but NO, they cannot. Your old house secures the mortgage on THAT house. Nothing else.
If your still buying the house and you still owe the mortgage company then Yes. It is a part of your mortgage contract. Failure to comply with the terms of your mortgage contract will put you in default on your mortgage and subject you home to foreclosure. It has nothing to do with whether you filed a bankruptcy or not, it's a totally separate issue.
Until a foreclosure sale takes place, the owner is entitled to rent payments. His relationship with the bank has nothing to do with the tenants.