You cannot do that without permission of the mortgage holder. In some cases they may allow it. Most of the time they will want to draw up a new mortgage and new terms.
If you transfer the ownership of the property the lender has the right to demand immediate payment in full of the mortgage and it will. That is one of the provisions included in the mortgage contract that you signed. It is called a due on transfer clause. A sale of the property will constitute a breach of the agreement.If you transfer the ownership of the property the lender has the right to demand immediate payment in full of the mortgage and it will. That is one of the provisions included in the mortgage contract that you signed. It is called a due on transfer clause. A sale of the property will constitute a breach of the agreement.If you transfer the ownership of the property the lender has the right to demand immediate payment in full of the mortgage and it will. That is one of the provisions included in the mortgage contract that you signed. It is called a due on transfer clause. A sale of the property will constitute a breach of the agreement.If you transfer the ownership of the property the lender has the right to demand immediate payment in full of the mortgage and it will. That is one of the provisions included in the mortgage contract that you signed. It is called a due on transfer clause. A sale of the property will constitute a breach of the agreement.
The owner can sell the property. If one person is on the deed then that person can sell the property. The mortgage must be paid off at the time of the sale. It is not a good idea to transfer your rights in property by a deed if you are still on the mortgage.The owner can sell the property. If one person is on the deed then that person can sell the property. The mortgage must be paid off at the time of the sale. It is not a good idea to transfer your rights in property by a deed if you are still on the mortgage.The owner can sell the property. If one person is on the deed then that person can sell the property. The mortgage must be paid off at the time of the sale. It is not a good idea to transfer your rights in property by a deed if you are still on the mortgage.The owner can sell the property. If one person is on the deed then that person can sell the property. The mortgage must be paid off at the time of the sale. It is not a good idea to transfer your rights in property by a deed if you are still on the mortgage.
You cannot transfer your mortgage to your friend. The lender owns the mortgage. You must discuss the situation with your lender to determine if it will allow your friend to assume the mortgage obligation. If so then you can convey the property to your friend by deed and the lender will execute an assumption agreement with the new owner.Mortgages have a due on transfer clause. That means if you transfer the property to a new owner the full amount of the mortgage will become due immediately as you agreed when you signed the mortgage. You will be the one responsible for paying and not the new owner. Remember that the person you transfer the property to did not apply for the mortgage and was not approved by the lender.
No, it is not possible to transfer a mortgage. It is specific to a piece of property. But most lenders will work with you to create a new one for the new property with the resolution of the previous one.
In law, a property conveyance is the transfer of legal title of real property from one person to another, or the granting of an encumbrance such as a mortgage or an easement right in land.In law, a property conveyance is the transfer of legal title of real property from one person to another, or the granting of an encumbrance such as a mortgage or an easement right in land.In law, a property conveyance is the transfer of legal title of real property from one person to another, or the granting of an encumbrance such as a mortgage or an easement right in land.In law, a property conveyance is the transfer of legal title of real property from one person to another, or the granting of an encumbrance such as a mortgage or an easement right in land.
It sounds like your name was on the deed, you mortgaged the property then you conveyed it to your spouse thinking to effect a change in ownership free of the mortgage. You can't do that.A conveyance to defraud your creditor will be "undone" by the court. Also, if you did transfer ownership subsequent to granting a mortgage the transfer is subject to that mortgage. Your bankruptcy won't simply wipe out your mortgage and make the property free and clear since you transferred it to your spouse. In addition, the bank can demand payment in full under the "due on transfer" clause in the mortgage. You have a tangled web and you should consult with an attorney who specializes in bankruptcy.It sounds like your name was on the deed, you mortgaged the property then you conveyed it to your spouse thinking to effect a change in ownership free of the mortgage. You can't do that.A conveyance to defraud your creditor will be "undone" by the court. Also, if you did transfer ownership subsequent to granting a mortgage the transfer is subject to that mortgage. Your bankruptcy won't simply wipe out your mortgage and make the property free and clear since you transferred it to your spouse. In addition, the bank can demand payment in full under the "due on transfer" clause in the mortgage. You have a tangled web and you should consult with an attorney who specializes in bankruptcy.It sounds like your name was on the deed, you mortgaged the property then you conveyed it to your spouse thinking to effect a change in ownership free of the mortgage. You can't do that.A conveyance to defraud your creditor will be "undone" by the court. Also, if you did transfer ownership subsequent to granting a mortgage the transfer is subject to that mortgage. Your bankruptcy won't simply wipe out your mortgage and make the property free and clear since you transferred it to your spouse. In addition, the bank can demand payment in full under the "due on transfer" clause in the mortgage. You have a tangled web and you should consult with an attorney who specializes in bankruptcy.It sounds like your name was on the deed, you mortgaged the property then you conveyed it to your spouse thinking to effect a change in ownership free of the mortgage. You can't do that.A conveyance to defraud your creditor will be "undone" by the court. Also, if you did transfer ownership subsequent to granting a mortgage the transfer is subject to that mortgage. Your bankruptcy won't simply wipe out your mortgage and make the property free and clear since you transferred it to your spouse. In addition, the bank can demand payment in full under the "due on transfer" clause in the mortgage. You have a tangled web and you should consult with an attorney who specializes in bankruptcy.
Your question is not exactly clear. I will interprete it as how do you transfer property that is encumbered by a mortgage. You should seek legal advice before transferring your interest in any property that is subject to a mortgage. Generally, the boilerplate language in any mortgage document states that the full balance will become due upon any transfer of the property. You would be responsible for payment and if the mortgage is not paid the bank will take possession of the property. Also, even if the bank didn't know of the transfer immediately, if the new owner failed to pay the mortgage the full consequences would fall on you. The bank approved you for the loan and you don't have the power to assign your approval to someone else. You should speak with a bank representative to see if the mortgage can be assumed by a new owner. At one time lenders allowed a subsequent buyer to execute an assumption agreement.
Generally, to remove one person from a mortgage that person must transfer their interest to the other and then the remaining sole owner must refinance the property in their sole name. The existing mortgage must be paid off.
It depends on how the real property is legally titled and recorded in your jurisdiction. If the foreclosure notice is in one name only, it is probably in the name of the debtor whose name appears on the loan/mortgage. IF two people actually do own the property, then the notice MAY be legally insufficient for the lender to actually foreclose on the property in question.Another PerspectiveIt depends on who owned the land at the time of the mortgage and who signed the mortgage.If two people owned the land at the time of the mortgage and only one signed the mortgage then the lender only has a one-half interest. It cannot foreclose on the interest of the owner who didn't sign.If one person owned the land and signed a mortgage and then transferred a half interest to another person, that other person received their interest subject to the mortgageand the bank can foreclose and take possession of the property if the mortgage isn't paid. In addition, once an owner of property has granted a mortgage the "due on transfer clause" in the mortgage prohibits any transfer of title without notifying the bank. If the bank finds there has been a transfer of any interest by deed, it can demand payment in full of the mortgage balance immediately.
==One Answer== Inherited real property that is encumbered by a mortgage would be taken free of the mortgage IF the will also specified that the mortgage would be paid by the estate.
A mortgage must be signed by all the owners of the property. One co-owner cannot mortgage the property because the lender needs to have the right to take the property by foreclosure in case of a default. If all the owners didn't sign the mortgage the bank cannot take full possession of the property.A mortgage must be signed by all the owners of the property. One co-owner cannot mortgage the property because the lender needs to have the right to take the property by foreclosure in case of a default. If all the owners didn't sign the mortgage the bank cannot take full possession of the property.A mortgage must be signed by all the owners of the property. One co-owner cannot mortgage the property because the lender needs to have the right to take the property by foreclosure in case of a default. If all the owners didn't sign the mortgage the bank cannot take full possession of the property.A mortgage must be signed by all the owners of the property. One co-owner cannot mortgage the property because the lender needs to have the right to take the property by foreclosure in case of a default. If all the owners didn't sign the mortgage the bank cannot take full possession of the property.
no. whichever mortgage was filed first with the local county clerk is the first mortgage on the property. any other mortgage would be subordinate in priority, and the priority is established by the date on which the mortgages are filed in the county clerks office