0
No. Most financial institutions want to know what the market reflects for the subject value. A buyer and seller may have different motivations than the "market" and should a loan go bad the market is what must be the supporting factor. The subject sale must be analyzed in the content of the appraisal (per USPAP) just not used in the adjustment grid.
What else can I help you with?
Do easements on land transfer during bankruptcy?
If the easements affected the land prior to the granting of the mortgages the property remains subject to or with the benefit of those easements. If an easement was granted aftera mortgage and the lender consented then the property will pass subject to the easement.
My husband purchased a home then added my name to the deed. Now we are in the process of foreclosing. What happens to my undivided half interest?
If your husband mortgaged his property prior to adding your name to the deed then you acquired your interest subject to the mortgage and the bank can take possession of the property by foreclosure. Your "interest" was encumbered by the mortgage. If you want to keep it then you must pay the mortgage.If your husband mortgaged his property prior to adding your name to the deed then you acquired your interest subject tothe mortgage and the bank can take possession of the property by foreclosure. Your "interest" was encumbered by the mortgage. If you want to keep it then you must pay the mortgage.If your husband mortgaged his property prior to adding your name to the deed then you acquired your interest subject tothe mortgage and the bank can take possession of the property by foreclosure. Your "interest" was encumbered by the mortgage. If you want to keep it then you must pay the mortgage.If your husband mortgaged his property prior to adding your name to the deed then you acquired your interest subject tothe mortgage and the bank can take possession of the property by foreclosure. Your "interest" was encumbered by the mortgage. If you want to keep it then you must pay the mortgage.
What if you live in a community property state and on spouse owned property before the marriage if they divorce what are the spouses rights?
Property owned prior to marriage is not considered community property unless it was converted to community property by some action by the parties.Property owned prior to marriage is not considered community property unless it was converted to community property by some action by the parties.Property owned prior to marriage is not considered community property unless it was converted to community property by some action by the parties.Property owned prior to marriage is not considered community property unless it was converted to community property by some action by the parties.
What is the opposite of community property state?
Property own prior married
What is cost appraisal?
Cost appraisal is the amount an item or property would "COST," to replace if it were a total loss. Let's assume a home burned to the ground in a fire, the cost appraisal would provide a line-by-line detailed estimate to replace the building with a new one of like, kind, and quality to the original that burned. A cost appraisal can also be conducted prior to purchasing insurance. If the policyholder knows the cost to replace the building they would know how much coverage to purchase. ----------------------------------------------------------------- Joe Brennan Insurance Claim Estimates & Appraisals Ph: (919) 669-9111 Fx: (919) 573-9595 http://www.insurance-appraisal-services.com
Can the executrix collect her admisitrative fees from inherited property that was deeded to heirs prior to death?
Generally, no. If the decedent transferred real property prior to death and the deed was recorded at the time of the transfer, it was not part of the estate when she died.You should note, however, that you referred to the property as "inherited property" in your question. The executor has control over all "inherited property". If the property was transferred to family members prior to death then it was not "inherited".You should discuss this matter with the attorney who is handling the estate.Generally, no. If the decedent transferred real property prior to death and the deed was recorded at the time of the transfer, it was not part of the estate when she died.You should note, however, that you referred to the property as "inherited property" in your question. The executor has control over all "inherited property". If the property was transferred to family members prior to death then it was not "inherited".You should discuss this matter with the attorney who is handling the estate.Generally, no. If the decedent transferred real property prior to death and the deed was recorded at the time of the transfer, it was not part of the estate when she died.You should note, however, that you referred to the property as "inherited property" in your question. The executor has control over all "inherited property". If the property was transferred to family members prior to death then it was not "inherited".You should discuss this matter with the attorney who is handling the estate.Generally, no. If the decedent transferred real property prior to death and the deed was recorded at the time of the transfer, it was not part of the estate when she died.You should note, however, that you referred to the property as "inherited property" in your question. The executor has control over all "inherited property". If the property was transferred to family members prior to death then it was not "inherited".You should discuss this matter with the attorney who is handling the estate.
Can you transfer property to a trust that you have no equity in prior to bankruptcy?
Sure..but any transfers, sales, transaction for some time before BK are subject to inclusion in the BK - and can even be reversed.
How much should a Comparable Market Analysis on a home cost?
Nothing. A realtor should provide this service prior to a listing agreement.
Ex-stock subject to prior sale?
Ex stock prior to sale
What happens if you are left a property in a will but it was sold prior to death to pay for residential care?
You cannot inherit property from an estate which no longer owns that property.
Is a husband entitled to his wife's property that she acquired prior to their marriage in Texas?
Generally, no. Texas is a community property state. Generally, any property acquired prior to marriage, and maintained as separate property during the marriage, is not considered community property. For more detailed advice you should consult with an attorney who specializes in divorce law.
If you get married will your husband automatically be co owner of your house?
Generally no. In a separate property state property that is in one name remains the property of that person. In a community property state property acquired prior to marriage remains separate property. If you have questions you should consult with an attorney in your area who can review your situation and explain how to keep your property separate.Generally no. In a separate property state property that is in one name remains the property of that person. In a community property state property acquired prior to marriage remains separate property. If you have questions you should consult with an attorney in your area who can review your situation and explain how to keep your property separate.Generally no. In a separate property state property that is in one name remains the property of that person. In a community property state property acquired prior to marriage remains separate property. If you have questions you should consult with an attorney in your area who can review your situation and explain how to keep your property separate.Generally no. In a separate property state property that is in one name remains the property of that person. In a community property state property acquired prior to marriage remains separate property. If you have questions you should consult with an attorney in your area who can review your situation and explain how to keep your property separate.
