Do laws apply to all

Answer 1

This depends on the meaning of "all". In general laws apply to every person with the exception of foreign diplomats who have "diplomatic immunity". This immunity precludes enforcement of criminal laws against such diplomats for crimes commited in this country. This is a necessary evil agreed upon by most every nation otherwise there would be a threat of criminal prosecution against a country's nationals in a place where they would have no protection. Consider the possibilty of trumped up charges against American diplomats in the old USSR during the Cold War. The same goes for diplomats from the USSR. In fact, each country's embassy grounds are considered "foreign soil" belonging to that government. The US can take no action against anything happening there. But, no government is allowed to let foreign diplomats commit crimes with impunity (or is that immunity, or both?). Whatever. The US can expel a diplomat for violation of its laws here, even though it cannot prosecute.

Answer 2

If the laws are made to benefit the people either as individuals or as a whole, then I would say yes. Laws made by Governments are for the benefit of the country and therefore must be obeyed. A father may make laws for his family so that the whole family benefits. An individual may set up a rule of law so that they benefit by obedience to those laws.

Though we may not agree with some of the laws made, by keeping them we keep within the bounds of that law(s). It is better to live under unrighteous law than no law at all.