If that is what the property wants. They do own what you are renting. I putthe question into proper English. Hope that you didn't mind! ;-)
Yes, a tenant in common can rent out their share of the property to another party.
A landlord is generally a person owns property for rent. A tenant is someone who rents property from a landlord.
Generally there is no point in suing a property manager for not collecting rent. It should be noted that the tenant is responsible for paying his rent on time. It is not the responsibility for the landlord to collect the rent. If the landlord does not collect rent and the tenant should send it to the landlord by mail or in person.
A tenant is a person who occupies a property, often an apartment, from another person, often known as a landlord. The tenant often pays rent for the property the tenant occupies.
Aslong as the landlord is the legal owner of the property (inquire at the registry of deeds), the tenant is obligated to pay the rent to him.
No.
Realtors typically get paid a commission by the landlord or property owner when they successfully find a tenant for a rental property. This commission is usually a percentage of the total rent amount for the lease term.
"Rent and possession" refers to the legal relationship between a landlord and tenant regarding the rental of a property. Rent is the payment made by the tenant to the landlord for the right to occupy and use the property, while possession signifies the tenant's legal right to occupy and control the premises. If a tenant fails to pay rent, the landlord may seek to regain possession through legal eviction proceedings. This concept is fundamental in landlord-tenant law, outlining the rights and responsibilities of both parties.
This is a certificate given from a property owner to the new property owner, which details all aspects of the tenant occupancy of the property, such as how many tenants, their information, how much they're paying in rent, etc.
As long as the landlord is in legal possession/ownership of the property and as long as you are residing on/in his property, yes. His notice of default has no legal effect of putting a "stay" on your payment of rent.
Generally, no. The possession of someone else's property for a debt is a "pledge" or "security agreement" that goes well beyond the mere obligation to pay rent. In other words, the tenant must AGREE to allow the landlord to have a security interest in the tenant's property. However, if the landlord has accrued moving and storage fees for the tenant's property, the landlord often has an automatic "lien" on the property for payment of those expenses, but not the overdue rent. When the landlord perfects the lien, holds a public auction and sells the tenant's property, the landlord can usually only keep the amount of profit (if any) that covers the expenses, unless there is also a court order that the tenant owes other rent, penalties, fees, interest, costs, etc.
The tenant owes the rent to the landlord up the day of a foreclosure sale.