They are conjugations of the verb see.
The auxiliary verb have forms the present perfect tense of "to see" which is have seen or has seen (the third-person singular form).
"Seen" is a past participle form of the verb "see" and is not used as a singular or plural verb on its own. It is often used with auxiliary verbs like "has been seen" or "had seen" to form verb tenses.
"Seen" is the irregular past participle of "to see".
No. You saw; is the correct past tense. You have seen is the correct present perfect. You had seen is the correct past perfect. Others are: you will be seen; you have been seen; and you had been seen.
No. It is not an adverb. Seen is the past participle of the verb "to see" and can be an adjective.
Seen in is not tense. The verb seen is the past participle of see but a past participle by itself does not make a tense.have/has seen = present perfecthad seen = past perfectwas seen = passive
"Seen" is a past participle form of the verb "see" and is not used as a singular or plural verb on its own. It is often used with auxiliary verbs like "has been seen" or "had seen" to form verb tenses.
"Seen" is the irregular past participle of "to see".
No. It is either an action verb (possess, own) or a helper verb (auxiliary verb) used to form perfect tenses (e.g. I have been, I have seen).
Yes, the form "Have you tea?" is technically correct but not a good modern form. The use of to have is seen in the modern form "Do you have tea?" -- This is the interrogative form of "you do have tea" as opposed to "you have tea."In this case "to have" is the verb and "do" is the auxiliary verb form, although similar in use to the modal verbs such as can.
No. You saw; is the correct past tense. You have seen is the correct present perfect. You had seen is the correct past perfect. Others are: you will be seen; you have been seen; and you had been seen.
No. It is not an adverb. Seen is the past participle of the verb "to see" and can be an adjective.
Seen in is not tense. The verb seen is the past participle of see but a past participle by itself does not make a tense.have/has seen = present perfecthad seen = past perfectwas seen = passive
Seen is not an adverb, no.The word seen is a verb.
The perfect tense is formed using the past participle form of a verb, often combined with an auxiliary verb such as "have" or "has." Examples include "have played," "has eaten," or "have seen."
The word at is a preposition indicating location or focus.Examples:"She was at the store." "The dance was at the auditorium" "They worked hard at solving the problem."The word seen is the participle form of the verb to see (vision, or understanding, or association)*the form uses a helper verb such as to be or to haveExamples:"They were seen together at the bank.""The process was seen as a breakthrough in manufacturing.""He has seen the doctor for his problem."
The correct phrase is "I saw it." "I seen it" is not grammatically correct; "seen" is the past participle form of "see" and is used with a helping verb (e.g., "I have seen it").
Yes, but it is never used alone as a verb.---The form seen is the past participle form of the verb to see.It appears in the perfect tenses : present, past, and future perfect, the conditional perfect (would have seen), and all of the passive voices.*activehave seen / has seenhad seenwill have seenwould have seen*passiveam seen / are seen / is seen / was seen /were seenhave been seen / had been seen/ will have been seen*conditionalcould have seenshould have seenmay/might have seenwould have been seencould have been seenshould have been seenmay/might have been seen(* when used with a noun, it is a participial rather than an adjective, e.g. "the man seen on the news")