None of you are....
Has. 'None' = 'no one', so 'none has' = 'no one has'.
It is correct to say "none of these recipies are tricky"
The correct form of this sentence would be "none of you are". This is because "you" in this context is plural in the case of "you all" so "are" would be the appropriate verb here.
None of them have opened their books - if each or every one of them have their own books. None of them has opened his book - if all of them only use one book (which incidentally belongs to a male =P) - You would need to change "have" to "has" to reflect the singular.
Correct, the phrase "none of us" is singular because it refers to "none," which is a singular pronoun. It is used to describe the absence of any amount or number of something.
Has. 'None' = 'no one', so 'none has' = 'no one has'.
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no, there is nothing correct.
It is correct to say "none of these recipies are tricky"
The construction is correct but the spelling is not; 'none of which'
none answers are correct
Yes, "None of the children were hurt" is a grammatically correct statement.
That is correct. There are none.
"There is none" could be a proper answer to the question, "Do you have any medication here?" Since "none" is a contraction of "no one", many grammarians would consider that "there is none" is always correct.
The correct form of this sentence would be "none of you are". This is because "you" in this context is plural in the case of "you all" so "are" would be the appropriate verb here.
none of these answers are correct
No, it would be "None of the children were hurt"