answersLogoWhite

0

Purchasing power parity refers to the equality of the prices of goods in two countries that is valued at the prevailing exchange rate. This is also called absolute PPP.

User Avatar

Wiki User

10y ago

What else can I help you with?

Related Questions

Who supported political equality for blacks?

black power


What was voting power in congress in 1785 was based on?

equality of the states


What is a 6 letter word for equality in value or power?

profit


How did early civilizations erode the equality found in earlier societies?

Those who have power and those who dont. The smarter of the social groups will usually hold the power.


Why do we have gender equality?

gender isssues is imperative when it comes to the development of acountry. it brings equal power for both male and female.


What is politics as power and distribution of resources?

In the school context politics is veiwed as power and distribution by using equality of outcomes which resources is distribute by the power of politics


What is meant by gender equality?

gener equality is when woman have less power than men do or vice versa the social content the result in women not having equal rights


What did communism offer?

Social equality, more done for the people instead of for the rich in power.


What did stokely carmichael mean by the term black power?

African Americans should use economic and political power to gain equality. -NovaNET


What is the worst kind of equality to the founding fathers?

That the common man, or the rabble as they were considered would somehow use the power of Democracy to oust the gentry or landowners from their power.


The rise of the Black Power movement in the 1960s was the result of?

Growing black impatience with the pace of attempts to win equality...


Is a to power of 4 multiplied by b to power of 5 invertible?

Indeterminate. How? a4b5 is the expression instead of equality. Since we are not given the equality of two variables, there is no way to determine whether it's invertible or not. Otherwise, if you are referring "a" and "b" as invertible matrices, then yes it's invertible. This all depends on the details.