How many times is the word homosexual used in the Bible?

Answer 1

zero times, unless you have a very recent and non-literal edition of The Bible. The Bible doesn't speak out against homosexuality, just certain sexual situations, which many interpret as a prohibition against gay sex.

Leviticus 18:22 says, "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman, this is detestable." Notice how the verse doesn't say, "Do not be attracted to a man as one is to a woman" nor does it say "do not marry another man as you would marry a woman."

The Bible simply states to not commit sexual acts with someone of the same gender (according to traditional interpretation; there are other interpretations that view this passage as a prohibition against rape or humiliating others, and some believe it is only a Jewish law.)

But in the Christian traditional view, people cannot help who they are attracted to, but they are responsible for what they do with those feelings. Romans 1:26-27 says, "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received IN themselves the due penalty for their perversion" (likely the HIV virus). The Bible says God GAVE THEM OVER to these unnatural lusts, meaning that he allows us to have free will, even with who we have sex with. But we still receive consequences of our sin.

Answer:

Actually, the term 'homosexual' as we would know it today (ie someone who has loving feelings and who is sexually attracted to someone of the same sex) does not occur in the old or New Testament at all. There are vague references to it in Leviticus, but Christians are not bound by Levitical Law or otherwise all Christian men would be circumcised, not eat pork, and never wear two sorts of cloth together.

The term 'homosexual' may well be present in translations of one or two of Paul's letters (such as 1 Corinthians 6:9) but it does not refer to a homosexual as we would know one.

Paul uses the Greek term 'arsenokoi' which does not refer to a normal homosexual loving committed relationship, but to the pagan homosexual prostitutes that were paid to have homosexual sex with men in Corinth as part of a pagan ritual.

In the preceding (and subsequent) verses, Paul is more concerned with those who claimed to be Christian but still indulge in these pagan practices as if they were the norm for a Christian - a little like those who claim to be Christian today but still live their lives by their horoscopes, and by going to mediums.

So Paul was not giving a 'Law' to be followed by everyone for all time, but instead was answering a specific question for a specific Church at a specific time, and was more interested in anti-Christian pagan worship than in sexual preference.

Sadly, there are those in the Christian Church who cherry-pick Paul's teaching as 'proof' that God 'hates' homosexuals, but this attitude speaks more about their own prejudices and bigotry than about what is actually God's word on the matter.

So 'homosexuality' as we would know it is not mentioned.

Answer 2

There are no homosexual chapters in the Bible. Leviticus 18:20 and a few others are interpreted by some Christians to persecute gay people, but they are actually open to interpretation. Likewise, the story of Sodom and Gomorrah says nothing about homosexuality, but certain Christian denominations interpret it that way for the same reason.

Answer 3

It depends upon the English version in use - older translations do not use the term. Here is the Living Bible (TLB) occurrences:

1. All (6)
2. Old Testament (4)
3. Leviticus (2)
4. Deuteronomy (1)
5. 1 Kings (1)
6. New Testament (2)
7. 1 Corinthians (1)
8. 1 Timothy (1)

Answer 4

Zero. The word didn't exist in English prior to the 1860's. The KJV Bible was written in 17th Century English. Newer editions that include the word are not literal, and are not getting it from the original text, but rather, they are making their own interpretation.

Answer 5

Zero. The word didn't exist in English prior to the 1860's. The KJV Bible was written in 17th Century English.