NO. American women did not get the vote until the 1920's.
They were allowed to vote.
they could vote, they could work in offices instead of factories. Some became leaders in the field hope this helps
Slaves and women had the right to vote.
The roles they took during WW1 opened many new doors for women and they proved they could do anything men could. 2 years later they got the right to vote.
The "franchise" is the right to vote; to "disenfranchise" means to deny someone the right to vote. In the south after the war, during reconstruction, white men generally were not allowed to vote, and the freed slaves were allowed to vote. As soon as reconstruction was over whites regained political power and though various laws (poll taxes, literacy tests) again disenfranchised the blacks. (No women could vote until 1920).
Women didn't have the right to vote until 1920 and the passage of the 19 amendment, so no woman could vote in the 1860's.
The women got the right to vote
vote i think
Freedom from England.... just like the men. But they were not full partners with the males because they could not vote.
The answer is no because women had no rights during that time.
Men could vote woman cussed in their sleep.
Only the men that were rich could vote, women could not vote.
In New Jersey, and only New Jersey, all inhabitants had the right to vote in 1780. As long as they could provide some evidence of wealth (Not a lot). As wealth was generally tied to the male in a household during this time it may be difficult to say that women could actually vote at this time, but it wouldn'tsurpriseme if some did!Not to say they didn'tparticipatein the politicalupheavalgoing on at the time.
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
During the federalist period, no women could vote or serve on juries. Depending on the community, women could own property or sue for divorce.
They were allowed to vote.
Women could not vote in the 1800s