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How did Hitler respond to French and British appeasement?
he responded by asking for more and more. he broke the agreements made as a result of Germany apparently starting WW1. He was given land such as the Sudetenland through appeasement which caused him to undermine the power of Britain and France. he became more powerful and confident with each successful demand, and this is one of the caused of WW2.
Why did Hitler take over Rhineland and Sudetenland?
To one's knowledge, other than gaining land from Poland to expand from.Hitler wanted to take over Europe, and eventually the world if possible. He considered all others (everyone) in the world to be inferior to the Germans. He wanted to create a "Aryan" race of blond hair blue eyed human beings who all spoke German. Countries such as Czech/Slovak Hung, Poland, were mere stepping stones in his plans for New World Order.
What was signed when Hitler promised not to ask for more land in Europe?
The Munich Agreement
What happened at munich prior to World War 2?
Ghamberlain, the British Prime minister, returned to UK with a 'piece of paper' which said Hitler had no more European countries on his list after the Sudetenland. Oh dear ! Czechoslovakia would be invaded & then came Poland. Simply Hitler was not a man of his word !
Why did Hitler just sit there and let the people die?
Because Hitler didn't care about his people. He pretended to like his people so that he could gain their respect, so they'd support him when he wanted more land.
Hitler's violations of the Treaty of Versailles?
He demilitarized the Rhineland, united with Austria, increased his army, expanded his country and began to take more land (eg. Sudetenland)
What country was taken after Hitler signed the munich pact?
Czechoslovakia. Czechoslovakia's Sudetenland, to be more precise.
How did Hitler respond to French and British appeasement?
he responded by asking for more and more. he broke the agreements made as a result of Germany apparently starting WW1. He was given land such as the Sudetenland through appeasement which caused him to undermine the power of Britain and France. he became more powerful and confident with each successful demand, and this is one of the caused of WW2.
What was the apeasement for British?
Neville Chamberlin was the Prime Minister of Britain at the time and he believed in the policy of Appeasement. Appeasement was basically when Neville Chamberlin told Hitler he could have whatever he wanted just as long as he maintained peace (didn't start a war) in the most common case people generally refer to Hitler and the Sudetenland In 1938, *The actual word appeasement means to please someone... * the Sudetenland was in Czechoslovakia and it was full of german speaking people (thats why Hitler wanted it ! and he also wanted to expand his land to have more living space for his people)
Why did Neville Chamberlain allow Hitler to annex the Sudetenland?
They were afraid of the effects of standing up to Hitler in case of another war. Both Britain and France were horrified from WW1, and they were both still not ready to fight. So they used the policy of appeasement to give Hitler what he wanted, if it was within reason. Also, people in britain thought that the Treaty of Versailles- which is what took the Sudetenland land from Germany in the first place was too harsh, and that Germany should be treated more equally.
Why did Hitler take over Rhineland and Sudetenland?
To one's knowledge, other than gaining land from Poland to expand from.Hitler wanted to take over Europe, and eventually the world if possible. He considered all others (everyone) in the world to be inferior to the Germans. He wanted to create a "Aryan" race of blond hair blue eyed human beings who all spoke German. Countries such as Czech/Slovak Hung, Poland, were mere stepping stones in his plans for New World Order.
Why could Hitler rise to power?
Hitler could easily rise to power because he had people behind him and working for him so he got more land from that and the more land he got the more land he could get as he was more powerful.
Why did Adolf Hitler remilitarize the Sudetenland?
The question confuses two distinct events: Hitler's remilitarization of the Saarland AND Hitler's Invasion and Occupation of the Sudetenland. The Saarland was a part of Germany along the French and Luxembourgian border. It was demilitarized according the Treaty of Versailles. Hitler remilitarized it to see whether or not the French and British were willing to go to war to impose the demilitarization. Their non-response led to more audacious activities to try and push the envelope. The Sudetenland was a region of Czechoslovakia along the German border that had an ethnic German majority. In 1938, anti-war sentiment was so high in UK and France, that when Hitler (Nazi Germany) and Mussolini (Italy) claimed that they would be peaceful if the Sudetenland was given to Germany. This was part of UK Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain's policy of appeasement, which eventually was shown to be ludicrous.
What did Hitler believe should happen with the Sudetenland?
That because it was occupied by people more German than Czech it should be part of Germany: & when it was he went on to invade Czechoslovakia anyway.
When did Germany take over the Sudetenland?
first answer: because it was taken away from 'Germany at the end of WW1. The Treaty of Versailles I think..It's people speak German, and it was an easy target for Hitler to take it in his Pre-WW11 expansion demandssecond more correct answer: The Sudetenland was actually not a part of Germany during the First World War, it was a part of Austria-Hungary. Hitler created a fake crisis over the Sudetenland as a means to attack & seize the whole of Czechoslovakia in 1938. That was his original plan. His plan was partially foiled by the Munich Agreement. In that agreement, the British & French leaders agreed to hand the Sudetenland over to Germany without a fight, although the Czech's were willing to fight. This action has become infamous in European history as the part of the "appeasement" of Hitler. Hitler was seen as the victor in this crisis. The actual reality behind the scenes is as such: The Munich Agreement of 30 September 1938 infuriated Hitler because he actually desired to start an armed conflict with Czechoslovakia to seize the entire country, beyond the Sudetenland. From his point of view, he won only a small portion of Czechoslovakia. Secretly Hitler's Generals were amazed & happy that war had been avoided. Hitler still had his eyes on the remainder of Czechoslovakia, and he correctly reasoned that the French & British would not risk war to interfere with Hitler's seizure of that nation. So in March 1939, the German Army seized the remainder of Czechoslovakia. So again Hitler amazed his Generals with the relatively painless conquest. However for the French & British, this was the "last straw" that ended the appeasement, and they secretly determined to resist further German aggressions, setting the stage for world war when Germany attacked Poland (allied to France & Britain).
What was signed when Hitler promised not to ask for more land in Europe?
The Munich Agreement
Why was the axis in World War 2 for?
Hitler wanted more land for the Germans and Tojo wanted land for Japan.
