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Was appeasement a mistake in World War 2?

Updated: 8/18/2023
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Cosbpl

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16y ago

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If you are referring to the appeasement of Hitler, it could be considered a mistake. However, neither the French and especially the British would not have gone to war over the Sudentland, so Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain had no choice. A war would not have been supported. Either way, Hitler would have taken the Sudentland, war or no war.

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16y ago
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14y ago

Appeasement did not work historically.

Whether or not it will work today or in the future, is an issue split along the line. Liberals and conservatives have different views on this.

Here's one example of a conservative view against appeasement:

http://www.americansolvent.com/2009/07/05/appeasement-and-why-it-doesnt-work/

http://www.americansolvent.com/2009/06/23/the-peril-of-non-aggression-in-foreign-policy/

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13y ago

Simply.... No. The appeasement in WW2 was not successful. Neville Chamberlain gave Hitler the Sudetenland under the condition that he would not go on to invade the rest of the Czech Republic (then, Czechoslovakia) despite this Hitler ignored Chamberlain completely and invaded the rest of Czechoslovakia.

But....

We were not ready to fight the inevitable war that was coming, Neville Chamberlain bought us time.

In the end we came out as victors (also down to the Russians and Americans)

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Appeasement of Adolf Hitler and the Nazi Third Reich did not work because Adolf Hitler had no intention of honoring the non-aggression pacts he signed with France, Britain, Russia and other nations.

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16y ago

Some historians contend it didn't go far enough, others will tell you that it caused WWII.

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13y ago

Yes because it gave people a false sense of security from the Nazis.

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11y ago

Yes it was a mistake because it caused World War 2

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13y ago

The appeasement was wrong since it did nothing but showing weakness in Britain.

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Related questions

Was the appeasement was a mistake?

Yes it was a mistake because it caused World War 2


Why was appeasement a mistake in World War 2?

because it just was


What did appeasement do during World War 2?

nothing


World War 2 why did the british follow the appeasement?

because...


Could World War 2 have benn averted with the appeasement policy?

The policy of appeasement contributed to the start of World War 2. When the allied countries gave in to Hitler's first demands it encouraged him to try for more.


How successful was appeasement in preventing world war 2?

Not at all. WWII was fought.


What are the landmarks of appeasement in World War 2?

Prior to World War II, Britain tried a strategy of appeasement with Hitler. It didn't work, and Hitler ended up taking Austria and Czechoslovakia.


What is the policy of giving in to Hitler's demands before World War 2 called?

"Appeasement" .


What year was the appeasement concession practiced by France and Great Britain in world war 2?

1937


How did iappeasement lead to the outbreak of World War 2?

Appeasement did not really lead to the outbreak of World War 2 in the European Theater. The Nazis had already planned on invading nations so the appeasement and the non-aggression pacts were all merely a joke to the Nazis.


What was the policy of appeasement in world war 2?

appeasement before world war 2Britain and France was after WWII but Britain and Germany before WWIIAnsweri only know two countries that held an appeasement before war broke out in 1939. these two countries are BRITAIN and GERMANY. i hope that this has helped you with your reasearch.


What policy did Britain and France adopt toward Hitler before World War 2?

AppeasementThe policy of appeasement.