If you are referring to the appeasement of Hitler, it could be considered a mistake. However, neither the French and especially the British would not have gone to war over the Sudentland, so Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain had no choice. A war would not have been supported. Either way, Hitler would have taken the Sudentland, war or no war.
Prior to World War II, Britain tried a strategy of appeasement with Hitler. It didn't work, and Hitler ended up taking Austria and Czechoslovakia.
appeasement before world war 2Britain and France was after WWII but Britain and Germany before WWIIAnsweri only know two countries that held an appeasement before war broke out in 1939. these two countries are BRITAIN and GERMANY. i hope that this has helped you with your reasearch.
Answer this question… European appeasement of German aggression in an effort to avoid conflict
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appeasement
Yes it was a mistake because it caused World War 2
because it just was
nothing
because...
The policy of appeasement contributed to the start of World War 2. When the allied countries gave in to Hitler's first demands it encouraged him to try for more.
Not at all. WWII was fought.
Prior to World War II, Britain tried a strategy of appeasement with Hitler. It didn't work, and Hitler ended up taking Austria and Czechoslovakia.
"Appeasement" .
1937
Appeasement did not really lead to the outbreak of World War 2 in the European Theater. The Nazis had already planned on invading nations so the appeasement and the non-aggression pacts were all merely a joke to the Nazis.
AppeasementThe policy of appeasement.
appeasement before world war 2Britain and France was after WWII but Britain and Germany before WWIIAnsweri only know two countries that held an appeasement before war broke out in 1939. these two countries are BRITAIN and GERMANY. i hope that this has helped you with your reasearch.