Does England border France

Answer 1

No. Quite the reverse. In ancient times, the Celts who inhabited England almost certainly got there from France. And in 1066 it was the Normans - originally Vikings, but implanted in France for over a century - who invaded England and took the land away from the natives - which sounds like colonization to me.

The English only invaded France in the 1300s, leading to the Hundred Years War and the eventual ejection of English occupation of parts of France in the mid-1400s.

Answer 2

Canada was colonized by both, but the French 'allowed' England to take over Canada, as France was dealing with wars and other colonial wars abroad. France however did maintain a strong cultural prescence and governmental control over Quebec. which is why Canada has culture, without quebec, Canada would be just like the U.S...

Boring and ignorant.

Answer 3

No, it is not. I thought I had seen some silly questions, but... <br /><br /> A colony is where a powerful nation discovers a hitherto unknown place populated by people in a much earlier stage of development, takes ove a corner of it and sends it own people to settle there and dispossess the natives. The thirteen colonies which formed the US are a good example. France, then known as GALLIA, was colonised in this way by the Romans. So was Britain. The Romans left in the fifth century AD, and that was the end of colonisation in Europe.

The above is only true for some, and it certainly doesn't answer the question. After the battle of Agincourt in 1415 France was mostly British controlled and sadly King Henry V died shortly before he could be crowned King of France. France, in a despondent mood, asked Britain if it could be one of her colonies in the early 1950's, taken aback Britain declined and they don't seem to have asked again.

Most of the bits of what is now France which were controlled by the English were not considered parts of France. They were independent duchies controlled by the King of England, including (at various times) Normandy, Touraine, Maine, Aquitaine, Anjou and so on; or by the Burgundians, whose Duchy also controlled other bits such as Flanders and... BUT none of this was colonisation, because they didn't settle their own people in. On the other hand, the South-West of France was mostly unpopulated until the 13th century, when the King of England, the King of France and the Church all began to found colonies there. These are the Bastides, fortified villages usually built on a grid plan, originally in forest clearings or occasionally on hilltops, and entirely populated by newcomers - which explains why many of them are named after cities in other countries, such as Cologne or Granada. All these places and all these people fought among themselves for centuries, for political, economic or religious reasons or for no reason in particular; but in the end all of them except Andorra were subsumed into France.

Bastides, incidentally, are lovely places. For more about them see my http://www.franceinpictures.com/bastide.htm

Answer 4

France never was the colony of Another Country - but it colonized other countries.

Answer 5

Yes, France did colonize Belgium which is why, still to this day the Belgains speak french. I'm not quite sure where, when or who by....still researching.

Answer 6

by Romans in ancient age, Franks in early medieval age and the English ruled some parts of it during Hundred Years' War. Also Nazi Germany occupied it in World War II .

Answer 7

No, France was never a colony of another country.

Answer 8

No, England is an island

Answer 9

yes