How was Charles de Gaulle instrumental in defeating the Germans in France?

Answer 1

By the year 1939, the Third Reich (Nazi Germany) was a very strong imperial force within mainland Europe and France was full of resources, a good staging ground to attack the British Isles, and to stop a major ally had the French government decided to intervene on the side of the Allies, which they would have had they had good leadership and better military spending in the 1920s and 1930s. In the year 1940, after Hitler took over all the Benelux Countries the Germans marched into Paris (the original goal of Kaiser Wilhelm I in World War I).

France surrendered and was divided into two zones the Occupied northern Zone with Paris as capitol that had a long strip line along the Atlantic border of France. (Which was a good location for the German Navy or U-boats to sink any allied ship). And Vichy, the pro-German puppet state in south, where Philippe Petain was basically a pawn for the Third Reich due to his socialistic psedo-facsist ideology that he had. He was later hanged for war crimes afterwards.

An added bonus for having Vichy, was that prior to World War II, the French had a huge intercontinental empire in their hands. And Hitler wanted some of the resources he could muster from this puppet empire that France had their paws on much later in the war. However, due to Maquis resistance, Allied support and Japanese distrust in the Pacific this never became a reality.

Answer 2

Otto Von Bismarck never saw the 20th century. He was around for the Franco-Prussian war in 1870-71. During that war, the Germans simply had a better, ore powerful army compared to the French. The same was true in World War II except Bismarck didn't have a hand in it.

Answer 3

Easy, by over powering its defence, or mabey just sheer luck. But most people would tell you that he had a bigger better more respectful army.

Answer 4

How was Charles de Gaulle instrumental in defeating the Germans in France?