It is one of the William shakesphere's play. It was published in 1623
History suggests that the Merchant of Venice was set in Venice probably because Venice was a very popular city at the time the play was made. It could also do with the fact that the words Merchant and Venice sound good together. When looking at Shakespeare's motives for setting the play in Venice, it may help to look at why 'Othello' was also set in Venice... You may notice in Merchant of Venice how Shakespeare shows Venice as a state divided against itself - for example Christians resent the practice of usury, despite the fact that it is essential to their booming economy. Antonio spits on Shylock one minute, yet is asking for his help the next - Christian society at the time is shown to be ignorant of it's foundations, to the point of resenting them, and is therefore shown to be unstable. Going back to the question - one reason the play could be set in Venice is so that Shakespeare could present his critical view of the Christian/Monarch situation in England at the time, without attracting censorship of his work by the English government. Venice may also have been used as it has an element of mystery about it - bear in mind that few had been to exotic places such as Venice at the time, so it would've added an additional layer of mystery to the play.
Shakespeare took the elements of this story from a number of sources, none of which are set in Venice. He may have chosen Venice because it had a significant Jewish community, and he wanted to make Shylock a Jewish as opposed to Lombard moneylender. This may have had something to do with his acquaintance with Emilia (Bassano) Lanier, who is supposed to have been Jewish. Then again, Venice was known as a cosmopolitan commercial city, the kind of place where someone like Antonio might live. Venice also had a reputation as a city of intrigue, of covert plots and subtle schemes, but this does not have much to do with what goes on in the play. Or we may be trying to read too much into it--he may have chosen Venice because he liked the name.
The fact that Portia (a woman) plays a lawyer (who were only men at the time) would be one irony in this play.
No one knows for sure. Although Shakespeare wrote action that took place in Venice (Othello and Merchant of Venice), there is no record of his having been there.
The Merchant of Venice is one, but their are references in other works.
There are many themes that the Merchant of Venice have. One of the major theme is mercy, this is a large part of the play that ends it.
It is one of the William shakesphere's play. It was published in 1623
Cyprus is a sovereign, independent country. no one controls cyprus.
Cyprus is two hours ahead of England. England is in the GMT timezone and Cyprus is in GMT+2. Both observe daylight savings and move forward one hour.
The Merchant of Venice- Shylock and Antonio are both moneylenders, one is an usurer (Shylock) and the other is not, but ends up defaulting on his debt, for which Shylock wants a pound of his flesh.
Julius Caesar is a much more famous historical figure than Brutus. And, although Brutus is the play's main character, it centres around the murder of Caesar, both the planning of it and the consequences of it. It is not as bizarrely misnamed as The Merchant of Venice, which one imagines ought to be either The Moneylender of Venice or The Heiress of Belmont.
History suggests that the Merchant of Venice was set in Venice probably because Venice was a very popular city at the time the play was made. It could also do with the fact that the words Merchant and Venice sound good together. When looking at Shakespeare's motives for setting the play in Venice, it may help to look at why 'Othello' was also set in Venice... You may notice in Merchant of Venice how Shakespeare shows Venice as a state divided against itself - for example Christians resent the practice of usury, despite the fact that it is essential to their booming economy. Antonio spits on Shylock one minute, yet is asking for his help the next - Christian society at the time is shown to be ignorant of it's foundations, to the point of resenting them, and is therefore shown to be unstable. Going back to the question - one reason the play could be set in Venice is so that Shakespeare could present his critical view of the Christian/Monarch situation in England at the time, without attracting censorship of his work by the English government. Venice may also have been used as it has an element of mystery about it - bear in mind that few had been to exotic places such as Venice at the time, so it would've added an additional layer of mystery to the play.
it will depend on your nationality.....if you're a European citizen living in Cyprus then you shouldn't need a visa to visit Spain as they are both members of the EU. If you are of a non-European nationality then you probably will need a visa. I'd guess you get one of these from the Spanish Embassy in Cyprus (assuming they have one).
The same one as in Hamlet: revenge. "And if you wrong us, shall we not revenge?"
Opinions vary. It was one of his earlier plays, possibly at about the same time as Romeo and Juliet and Midsummer Night's Dream, in the mid 1590s.
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