He has the same rights as any other father, the fact that he was married to someone else is irrelevant. But since you were not married he needs to establish paternity in court so he can petition for visitation or custody and also pay child support.
no
The husband is presumed to be the father of any children conceived/born during the marriage, unless/until proven otherwise.
Vlad the Impaler married Princess Cneajna of Transylvania, who committed suicide in 1462. They had a son named Mihnea.
In the end, decapitation. Catherine Howard was the cousin of Anne Boleyn and became the wife of King Henry the Eighth in 1540. He was 49 and gross and she was 19 and beautiful. Within a year she was committing adultery with young men of the court. Henry had her charged and convicted of adultery and she was beheaded at the Tower of London on 15th Feb 1542. They were only married for 18 months.
If God had told Hosea to commit adultery, then indeed it would seem quite inconsistent.However, God did not tell Hosea to commit adultery. He told Hosea to marry a wife who was an adulteress.Hosea 1:2 in the King James reads:The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. and the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD.The New International Version renders the same passage as follows:When the LORD began to speak through Hosea, the LORD said to him, "Go, take to yourself an adulterous wife and children of unfaithfulness, because the land is guilty of the vilest adultery in departing from the LORD."The Hebrew word used to describe the wife can be rendered "idolatry," "whoredom," or "adultery," so either translation is legitimate.The first thing to note is that Hosea himself wasn't told to commit adultery, but that his wife had or would commit adultery (or harlotry).The Life Application Bible commentary has this to say about the situation: "Did God really order his prophet to marry a woman who was a prostitute? Some who find it difficult to believe God could make such a request view this story as an allegorical illustration, not an historical event. Many, however, think the story is historical and give one of these explanations: (1) According to God's law, a priest could not marry a prostitute or a divorced woman (Leviticus 21:7). However, Hosea was not a priest. (2) It is possible that Gomer was not a prostitute when Hosea married her but that God was letting Hosea know that Gomer would later turn to adultery and prostitution. In this case, Hosea knew ahead of time that his wife would be unfaithful and that their married life would become a living object lesson to the adulterous northern kingdom. Hosea's marriage to an unfaithful woman would illustrate God's displeasure with the unfaithful nation of Israel.In relationship to Israel and their worship of God, service to any other deity is considered whoredom.
In some cultures or legal systems, the punishment for a married woman who commits adultery can vary, but it may include social stigma, divorce, or legal consequences such as fines or imprisonment.
Yes it is adultery, as one of the partners here is married. Then the married one is committing adultery.
No, Mary was not married to Joseph when she conceived.
Yes Jacob had two wives, Leah and Rachel, but he committed adultery with both their maid servants.
Yes Answer No. It's only adultery if you are married.
Adultery. He had an affair with 17 year old Abigail while he was still married.
I do not believe that adultery is a criminal offence in most countries (it is in some Muslim countries) so I do not think you can be 'charged' with it. However if you have sex with another person while still married then you have indeed committed adultery. Filing papers is not the same as a decree absolute - you are still married.
Mary was engaged to Joseph when she conceived Jesus, but they were not yet married.
The Arizona statute reads:" A married person who has sexual intercourse with another than his or her spouse, and an unmarried person who has sexual intercourse with a married person not his or her spouse, commits adultery and is guilty of a class 3 misdemeanor. When the act is committed between parties only one of whom is married, both shall be punished.No prosecution for adultery shall be commenced except upon complaint of the husband or wife. "
Well, technically "adultery" only refers to infidelity between married people, so if you're not married, then it's just infidelity, not adultery.
You don't . . . that is adultery. When you were married, you promised never to commit adultery.
AnswerAccording to correct usage, at least one partner must be married to someone else, for a sexual act to constitute adultery. However, some churches treat any sexual act outside marriage as adultery. On the other hand, the Old Testament only prohibited sex with another man's wife; a married man seems to have been free to have sex with a single woman.