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You could turn the question around and ask how the area occupied by those two countries ended up (almost) with only two languages. In ancient times there were many more languages in different regions within what have now become France and Germany. As late as a thousand years ago, some letters and documents were still being written in Latin (which was fairly standardized) because people did not know each others' native languages. Furthermore, those people who could read (not everybody, by a long shot) learned Latin as they learned to read, and some spoken languages were not written down. Most of areas of Germany spoke languages similar to each other, so eventually they were able to adopt one form of what we now call German. Something similar happened in France (except that there are still areas of France that have other languages).

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The main reason that French and German are such different languages is that while the original people of Gaul (France) spoke Germanic and Celtic languages -- both much closer to modern German than French, they were overrun by the Romans, who introduced Latin as the means of communication. The current French language is a derivative of Latin. Conversely, the German language is derived from these ancestral Germanic languages.

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Q: Why did Germany and France end up with different languages?
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