When did Chopin an George Sand call it quits?

Was Chopin anti semetic?

An academic would say that the 'gay' label is, in this case, anachronistic. Those who study the history of sexuality have noted that in some cultures, such as Ancient Greece, homosexual activity was rather common. Even in that culture, there were some who preferred the same sex to the opposite sex, and vice-versa. They have theorized that, therefore, sexual orientation is something of a social construct. It's a complicated issue, but academics tend to address sexuality before the beginning of the 'homosexual' revolution of the late 19th century in terms of the Kinsey Scale, with 0 representing 'pure' heterosexuality, and 6 representing 'pure' homosexuality. Logically, in a society where homosexuality is extremely suppressed, those who engage in homosexual acts would often be those closer to 6 on the Kinsey scale (those who have no other choice). But the academics would tell you that these people would probably not think of themselves as 'homosexual', or whatever word they might have used in its place. The term 'homosexual' was not invented until after Chopin's death, incidentally by a man named Karl-Maria Kertbeny, who had met George Sand in Paris (and perhaps Chopin as well, though we have no evidence of it) during the final days of their relationship. Kertbeny was an advocate for the fair and humane treatment of what he called homosexual people, though his ideas were not truly embraced in a widespread manner until a century later, beginning with the Civil Rights revolution in the U.S. Sometimes the word 'pederast' would be used instead of 'homosexual'. Technically pederasty refers to sexual relationships between men and adolescent boys, but before the late 19th Century it was commonly used in reference to homosexual relations between adult men. Chopin's place on the Kinsey Scale is difficult to judge, considering the intense social stigma attached to homosexuality during his age. He lived in Paris, perhaps the most liberal place in Europe during those years, but even there, homosexual activity had consequences. One of Chopin's friends, the Marquis Astolphe de Custine--someone who certainly thought of himself as 'pederast' or the like--was a constant reminder to Chopin of these consequences, whatever his own inclinations. Custine had the money and social station to weather the scandal of his 'outing', but Chopin no doubt was privy to the reportedly cruel things said when Custine was not in earshot. Chopin himself was terrified of scandal, and while he outwardly lacked piety, he was rumored to be haunted by frightful visions inspired by his Catholic upbringing in Poland. (One can see hints of this in his letters and in his scrapbook entries, and George Sand talks about it as well.) None of the best Chopin biographies address this issue very thoroughly or honestly. Those who give credence to the idea that he might have been more attracted to men than to women are generally also those who give credence to any idea about Chopin's life that has a touch of scandal in it. And so, the issue is not addressed appropriately at all in the academic literature that I am aware of, with the exception of Jeffrey Kallberg's work (and even Kallberg does not address the issue of Chopin's sexual orientation at all; he only addresses many of the overlooked and marginalized details tangential to the issue). If I had to guess, I would say that Chopin was a 5 or a 6 on the Kinsey Scale, and that George Sand was somewhere between 2-4. She was Chopin's only significant relationship, and the letters show that Chopin approached the relationship with a certain amount of anxiety, and they also show that his relationship with Sand was almost entirely celibate. He was quite happy with her during the nine years they were together, but Sand hinted in her autobiography that they had an open relationship, and there is certainly room to interpret that information to be a clue that she knew he preferred men and that she was content to be a 19th Century 'beard' of sorts. But that is interpretation. Chopin had two female love interests before George Sand, and there are many details concerning both of these love interests that call into question whether Chopin was truly invested in them, or whether he was invested in the expectation that he should marry, as all upstanding men did. (Again, Chopin was very concerned with being upstanding.) In conclusion, the question is very much open to discussion. If you really want to know, I would suggest reading Chopin's letters, particularly those to Tytus Woyciechowski, and deciding for yourself. Many biographers explain these letters away by saying that it was common for men to address each other in this fashion during Chopin's time in Poland, but notably, none of them have ever quoted any examples, either from Chopin's letters to other men, or from other contemporary correspondence. While Chopin did address a few of his other close friends in a similar manner, the degree of difference is substantial.

When did Chopin an George Sand call it quits?

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