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The law of Avogadro is: equal volumes of gases contain the same number of molecules at constant pressure and temperature. The relation is direct.

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Is the relationship between distance and force in Newton's law of universal gravitation a negative correlation?

No. "Negative correlation" means no relationship can be found between the two quantities. But in the case of the gravitational force, there is a definite, bullet-proof, mathematical connection between the distance and the force. Since a greater distance leads to a smaller force, the relationship is said to be "inverse", but the correlation is definitely not "negative".


Why is the relationship between pressure and volume of a confined gas inverse?

The relationship between pressure and volume of a confined gas is inverse because of Boyle's Law. This law states that at constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. As the volume decreases, the gas particles are forced closer together, leading to more frequent collisions with the container walls and an increase in pressure.


Is the relationship between reactivity of metals and ionization energy a direct or inverse relationship?

The relationship between the reactivity of metals and ionization energy is generally an inverse relationship. As ionization energy decreases, it becomes easier for a metal to lose electrons and form positive ions, which increases its reactivity. Therefore, more reactive metals tend to have lower ionization energies. This trend is particularly evident when comparing metals within the same group of the periodic table.


Why won't a very bright beam of red light impart more energy to an electron than a feeble beam of violet light?

Ok, so this goes back to the inverse relationship between wavelength and frequency ( energy). As wavelength increases , frequency decreases, the relationship between the two is a inverse relationship. the Red light, wavelength of approx. 700 m^-7 , has a greater wavelength then of the blue light, 400m ^-7. This means , due to frequency and wavelength having an inverse relationship, blue light has a greater frequency (energy) than red light. This is why blue light, no matter how dim, will impart more energy to an electron , then a red light would.


Is boyles law direct or inverse?

Boyle's Law is an inverse relationship. It states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume, when the temperature is kept constant. This means that as the volume of a gas decreases, the pressure increases, and vice versa.

Related Questions

Describe the relationship between stroke volume and pump rate?

As stroke volume increases, pump rate decreases. This is an inverse relationship.


Is the relationship between pressure and volume direct or inverse?

the relationship between pressure and volume a direct or inverse?


Describe and give reasons for the relationship that exists between RGDP inflation and umeployment?

It is an inverse relationship. As inflation increases, unemployment decreases. This can be shown by the Phillips curve


Could you describe the shape of the graph of an inverse relationship as hyperbolic?

no you cant


How are factors and multiples similar?

They have an inverse relationship in the sense that if A is a multiple of B, then B is a factor of A.They describe relationships between numbers.


For which type of good is there an inverse relationship between the demand for the good and income?

For inferior goods, there is an inverse relationship between the demand for the good and income.


What is similar between an inverse relationship and a linear relationship What is different?

decreases


What is the relationship between aquaculture and water quality?

They have an inverse (negative) relationship.


Is their inverse relationship between quantity and price?

Yes.


Can you give a sentence using the word inverse?

Sodium and potassium have an inverse relationship. In an inverse relationship, two things are opposite and react to each other.


What kind of relationship is between sY X and r?

inverse


Why it is valid to say that both a function and its inverse describe the same relationship.?

If a function has an inverse then it is a bijection between two sets. Each element in the first set is mapped to one, and only one, element of the second set. Therefore, for each element in the second set there is one, and only one, element in the first set. The function and its inverse, both define the relationship between the same pairs of elements.