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This is nothing as complicated as "models of the universe"... it is a geometric phenomenon. For example, if an outer planet - outside the Earth's orbit - is retrograde, that simply means that Earth is overtaking that planet; temporary the planet seems to go "backwards".

The main movement of planets is from West to East; but for part of each orbit, each planet will have an (apparent) movement from East to West - then it is said to be "retrograde".

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What are the similarities beween Copernicus' model of the universe and Ptolemy's model of the universe?

Both Copernicus' and Ptolemy's models aimed to explain the motion of celestial bodies in the sky. However, Copernicus placed the Sun at the center of the universe, while Ptolemy's model had Earth at the center. Both models used the concept of epicycles to explain the retrograde motion of planets.


How did Copernicus explain the retrograde motions of the planets?

All the models explain retrograde motion because it is such an obvious phenomenon. In Copernicus's model an outer planet goes into retrograde motion when the inner planet overtakes it so that it appears from the inner planet to be going backwards along the ecliptic.


What geometric arrangements did ptolemy use to explain retrograde motion?

Earths faster motion makes Mars appear to be going backwards, the backwards motion, in fact, is what caused retrograde motion. --Ptloemy used Epicycles to explain how geocentrical models worked.


How did the copernican explain retrograde motion?

Both models explain it simply, and even a simple model with circular orbits explains it easily. Normally, as the planets rotate round the Sun, they appear to move along the ecliptic from west to east. But in the short period around opposition, when the planets are opposite the Sun in our sky, and we are closest to them, they appear to move east to west because they are going round more slowly than us - we are overtaking them. That is retrograde motion.


How did Nickolaus Copernicus account for the retrograde motion of the planets?

The retrograde motion of the planets is well modelled by both the Ptolemaic system and the Copernican system, and by the other models. But the Copernican system explains it more simply because, for example, Mars's retrograde motion is caused simply when Mars is overtaken by the Earth, which goes more quickly round the Sun. Thus an observer on the Earth sees Mars appearing to go 'backwards' on the ecliptic around the time of closest approach (opposition). This can be easily demonstrated by assuming simple circular orbits.

Related Questions

Purpose of using epicycles and deferents to explain the motion of the planets in the night sky was to account?

Epicycles and deferents were used in early models of the universe to accurately predict the positions of planets in the sky without fully understanding the heliocentric model. They were an attempt to explain the apparent retrograde motion of planets without the advanced knowledge of elliptical orbits.


What are the similarities beween Copernicus' model of the universe and Ptolemy's model of the universe?

Both Copernicus' and Ptolemy's models aimed to explain the motion of celestial bodies in the sky. However, Copernicus placed the Sun at the center of the universe, while Ptolemy's model had Earth at the center. Both models used the concept of epicycles to explain the retrograde motion of planets.


How did Copernicus explain the retrograde motions of the planets?

All the models explain retrograde motion because it is such an obvious phenomenon. In Copernicus's model an outer planet goes into retrograde motion when the inner planet overtakes it so that it appears from the inner planet to be going backwards along the ecliptic.


What geometric arrangements did ptolemy use to explain retrograde motion?

Earths faster motion makes Mars appear to be going backwards, the backwards motion, in fact, is what caused retrograde motion. --Ptloemy used Epicycles to explain how geocentrical models worked.


What are the similarities of geocentric and heliocentric?

Both geocentric and heliocentric models attempt to explain the movement of celestial bodies in the sky, specifically the sun, moon, and planets. Both models involve orbits, with geocentric placing Earth at the center and heliocentric placing the sun at the center. Additionally, both models seek to account for the retrograde motion of planets as seen from Earth.


Describe what produces the retrograde motion of mars. what geometric arrangement did Ptolemy use to explain this motion?

Earths faster motion makes Mars appear to be going backwards, the backwards motion, in fact, is what caused retrograde motion. --Ptloemy used Epicycles to explain how geocentrical models worked.


How did the copernican explain retrograde motion?

Both models explain it simply, and even a simple model with circular orbits explains it easily. Normally, as the planets rotate round the Sun, they appear to move along the ecliptic from west to east. But in the short period around opposition, when the planets are opposite the Sun in our sky, and we are closest to them, they appear to move east to west because they are going round more slowly than us - we are overtaking them. That is retrograde motion.


What is the difference of the heliocentric model and the geocentric model?

Geocentric models had the earth as the center of the universe with the sun and all the planets orbiting it. Heliocentric models (the current accepted ones) have the sun as the center, with the earth and planets orbiting it.


Explain how dark affects models of the fate of the universe?

It basically will make worlds and such evolve a LOT faster than normal.


How did Nickolaus Copernicus account for the retrograde motion of the planets?

The retrograde motion of the planets is well modelled by both the Ptolemaic system and the Copernican system, and by the other models. But the Copernican system explains it more simply because, for example, Mars's retrograde motion is caused simply when Mars is overtaken by the Earth, which goes more quickly round the Sun. Thus an observer on the Earth sees Mars appearing to go 'backwards' on the ecliptic around the time of closest approach (opposition). This can be easily demonstrated by assuming simple circular orbits.


Who discovered the retrograde motion of the planets?

Retrograde motion is apparent (obvious) in the night skies and even prehistoric people were able to observe this "irregularity". Retrograde motion is documented even in prehistoric-dated carvings, in caves. This motion was a natural phenomenon to them, anyway, rather than an irregularity. The "evening star" is followed pretty fast (in terms of days) by a "morning star". That's Venus what looks like during its retrograde motion. It's very typical and it happens for long periods of time (in terms of years) during approximately the same solar-calendar day of a season, every 8 years (the "ninth-year" cycle). Setting an example, Venus is going (to be) retrograde in the early spring in (the 21st century: 2001, 2009,) 2017, 2025, 2033, 2041, 2049,... That's inevitable and plain to see, for earth-dwellers! Venus is going to be retrograde in late autumn this year (2010) and this will happen again in 2018, 2026, 2034, 2042, and so on ... Philosophers and scientists at a later time tried to explain and decipher this phenomenon and proposed some models, like the Epicycles (proposed by Ptolemy). At last, the introduction of the telescope unclouded this mystery, anyway. (Believe me, it has been an experience for me to look for the first time at the four major satellites of Jupiter through a telescope. No human unaided eye can be thus penetrating (magnifying) like a telescope does.)


Explain why models are often used to study other planets.?

We use models to explain how life and such is. my example is the sun model. How would you know the orbit of the sun without that model? Now i know its a pretty simple reply but this is a simple question also. just think about it for a while