2 cups = 1 pint
38 cups = 38/2 = 19 pints
V = ( 38 cups ) ( 1.0 pint / 2.0 cups ) = 19 pints <-------------
There are 2 cups in one pint. Therefore, 28 cups is equal to 28/2 = 14 pints.
24 cups is 12 pints.
The answer is 6 pints. It takes 2 cups to equal 1 pint.
38 cups. In US measure, 1 pint = 2 cups And 1 cup = 0.5 pint. There are 16 US fluid ounces, 2 cups in 1 US pint (473.2 ml). Although there are 20 Imperial fluid ounces in 1 Imperial pint (568.3 ml), the Imperial system does not have cups, so it is best to use half pints.
2 quarts is equivalent to 4 pints and 8 cups.
There are 19 pints in 38 cups
To convert cups to pints, you can use the conversion factor that 1 cup is equal to 0.5 pints. Therefore, to convert 38 cups to pints, you multiply 38 by 0.5, which equals 19 pints. Thus, 38 cups is equal to 19 pints.
There are 2 cups per US pint so we're looking at a basic division problem.38 cups ÷ 2 cups/pint = 19 pintsSo there are 19 pints in 38 cups.
38 Cups.
There are 2 cups in one pint. Therefore, 28 cups is equal to 28/2 = 14 pints.
5 cups = 2.5 pints
11 cups is 5.5 pints (US).
2 cups = 1 pint 16 cups = 8 pints
50 cups
24 cups is 12 pints.
19 cups is larger, but not by much. 19 cups = 9.50001 pints.
The answer is 6 pints. It takes 2 cups to equal 1 pint.