The two most straight forward ways are:
- If both parents have the trait, and one of their children does not, it must be recessive.
- If neither parent has the trait, and one of their children does, it must be dominant.
bcoz in case of one dominant and one recessive, dominant allele will express its characters and suppresses the recessive ones. so for the expression of recessive characters both allele should be recessive.
Two recessive alleles can not take over a dominant allele because there are only two alleles in a pair. This can only happen if there is a mutation because the dominant always takes over the recessive.
Yes, a recessive allele will be expressed if there is no dominant allele present in the genotype. This is because in the absence of a dominant allele, the recessive allele has the opportunity to be expressed in the phenotype.
A dominant gene will exhibit its traits even in the presence of a recessive gene. This is because the dominant gene masks the expression of the recessive gene when present in the same individual.
The dominant gene will always "cover up" the recessive gene, although there are instances of codominance, in which both phenotypes will be displayed, because one gene is not completely dominant over the other. There is also what is called 'incomplete dominance', when the actual phenotype is somewhere between the two.
A recessive trait cannot be dominant over a dominant trait. Dominant traits are always expressed over recessive traits in heterozygous individuals because they mask the expression of the recessive trait.
no, because dominant is different from recessive, its impossible to have a dominant-recessive trait because the dominant is when only one copy of the gene is present, while in the recessive a trait that must be contributed by both parents in order to appear in the offspring, in short the dominant is for single parent, while in the recessive is a product of two parents.
its a dominant trait because it covers up your recessive trait so only dominant shows :)
It is neither recessive nor dominant because it is a chromosomal disorder and not just a problem present in a single gene.
bcoz in case of one dominant and one recessive, dominant allele will express its characters and suppresses the recessive ones. so for the expression of recessive characters both allele should be recessive.
Two recessive alleles can not take over a dominant allele because there are only two alleles in a pair. This can only happen if there is a mutation because the dominant always takes over the recessive.
Yes, a recessive allele will be expressed if there is no dominant allele present in the genotype. This is because in the absence of a dominant allele, the recessive allele has the opportunity to be expressed in the phenotype.
A dominant gene will exhibit its traits even in the presence of a recessive gene. This is because the dominant gene masks the expression of the recessive gene when present in the same individual.
They are related to each other because whether they are dominant or recessive they are both homozygous, meaning the same. They can either be homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive. If they are heterozygous then they are different because it contains one dominant and one recessive allele each. EX: AA=homozygous dominant allele aa=homozygous recessive allele Aa=heterozygous allele
False because a living thing that shows a dominant trait can not be homozygous recessive. If it is homozygous recessive it will show recessive trait. A living thing that shows dominant trait may be homozygous dominant or hetrozygous.
Genes have dominant and recessive alleles because of the way they interact with each other. Dominant alleles are expressed over recessive alleles because they carry instructions that override the instructions of the recessive allele. This dominance is determined by the specific genetic makeup and interactions within an organism.
because it dominates the phenotype