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One possible explanation: So that Macbeth will have heirs for the throne he takes from Duncan, so that Banquo's sons will not eventually take the throne, as the witches first predicted.

Another explanation: Macbeth doesn't really ever say that he wants his wife to bear him sons... He just says, "Bring forth men children only,/ for thy undaunted mettle should compose / Nothing but males." This is in act one, scene seven, after Lady Macbeth has told Macbeth how they can kill Duncan. By this he means that Lady Macbeth's commanding and ruthless nature is more suited to having boys than girls. OK, so Macbeth has masculinity issues. How else do you think Lady M was able to talk him into the murder?

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βˆ™ 11y ago
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βˆ™ 14y ago

It's widely believed that Macbeth and his lady may have had a child prior to the play, who either was killed or disowned. Whether it was a girl or boy is unknown. Besides, female children couldn't inherit the crown.

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βˆ™ 7y ago

He says, "Bring forth men children only". Both Macbeth and Lady Macbeth are fixated on a notion of masculinity as embodying determination, courage, boldness but also cruelty. Lady Macbeth had earlier asked the gods to "unsex me here and fill me from the crown to the toe top-full of direst cruelty." Compassion and kindness are feminine qualities, which is why Lady Macbeth associates them with milk ("the milk of human kindness"); to be less kind, her breasts should be filled with gall. Lady Macbeth, in order to make Macbeth renounce his decision not to do the murder, stresses this point. She calls him a coward and he responds "I dare do all that may become a man", asserting his masculine courage, and she replies, "when you durst do it then you were a man", and underlines it with another reference to breast milk and the horrific image of her beating her baby's brains out. This is sufficient to change his mind. So, when he says "bring forth men children only", he is not talking about having a family like Mrs. McCave (who had 23 sons and named them all Dave) but rather means, as he explains, "thy undaunted mettle should compose nothing but males." She is courageous, and that is a masculine quality, and she is so masculine that her children should all be males as well. It's a strange take on gender roles, but they are a strange couple.

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Q: 9 Why does Macbeth tell his wife that she should have only male children?
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What does Macbeth mean Bring forth men children only?

After having heard a description of a horrible deed Lady M assures she is capable of committing, Macbeth replies these famous words-"Bring forth men children only for thy undaunted mettle should compose nothing but males." meaning he thinks she is incapable of raising female children. It is truly not a compliment, Macbeth feels disgust towards her description of how she'd bash the head of the child whom moments before was sucking milk from her bosom. This two lines are commonly interpreted as Macbeth saying she will only give him male children which was what most people would have wanted-as male children would continue the royal lineage-but truly, he thought that a woman with her "undaunted mettle" or mind/way of thinking... should not be allowed to raise a girl... look back at how Lady M refers to Macbeth as having too much of "the milk of human kindness." Their gender roles at the onset of the play are almost (or in some ways) reversed.


Did Lady Macbeth have any children?

Yes, Lady Macbeth (b. c. 1015) had children. No child actually made an appearance in the Shakespearean play. But Macbeth's Lady referred to a child, in Act 1 Scene 7 Lines 54-55.That reference was indeed accurate, according to genealogical and historical records. Gruoch ingen Boite was married twice. Her first husband was Gille Coemgain (d. 1032), who may have been responsible for the murder of Macbeth's father, Findlaech mac Ruaidri (d. 1020). From that first marriage, she had at least one known child, Lulach macGille Coemgain.Gruoch then took as her second husband Macbeth (c. 1014-August 15, 1057), and came to be called Gruoch, Lady Macbeth. She had no known children from her second marriage. As Queen Gruoch's only child and son, the subsequent King Lulach (d. March 17, 1058) therefore succeeded his stepfather, Macbeth, as King of Scotland.


Read this passage MACBETH. Bring forth men-children only For thy undaunted mettle should compose Nothing but males. Will it not be received When we have mark'd with blood those sleepy two Of his own c?

He has decided to kill the king- Apex


Who does Macbeth kill in the play Macbeth?

The Macbeth family victim list is: King Duncan, his two chamberlains, Banquo, a fellow general, but his son escapes, Lady Macduff and her children (Lady Macduff's murder is not shown onstage to emphasize the horror of killing children) Macbeth also kills young Siward towards the end


How does Lady Macbeth hear about the prophecy?

Macbeth wrote Lady Macbeth a letter describing his encounter with the witches. Lady Macbeth reads it out at the beginning of Act I Scene 5

Related questions

Why does Macbeth tell his wife she should only have male children?

Macbeth tells his wife this because he fears the witches' prophecy that Banquo's descendants will inherit the throne, and having only male children ensures that his lineage will not be overthrown. This reflects Macbeth's ambition and paranoia about holding onto power.


What does Macbeth mean Bring forth men children only?

After having heard a description of a horrible deed Lady M assures she is capable of committing, Macbeth replies these famous words-"Bring forth men children only for thy undaunted mettle should compose nothing but males." meaning he thinks she is incapable of raising female children. It is truly not a compliment, Macbeth feels disgust towards her description of how she'd bash the head of the child whom moments before was sucking milk from her bosom. This two lines are commonly interpreted as Macbeth saying she will only give him male children which was what most people would have wanted-as male children would continue the royal lineage-but truly, he thought that a woman with her "undaunted mettle" or mind/way of thinking... should not be allowed to raise a girl... look back at how Lady M refers to Macbeth as having too much of "the milk of human kindness." Their gender roles at the onset of the play are almost (or in some ways) reversed.


Can there be an issue with your genes so that you are only able to have male children?

yes


Why you should ever get married?

Like an animals, there is sperm in the male's body and not the female's body. There is a cell in the female's body that a child is born in, but only if the male's sperm is there. If you don't want children, Why would you want to be lonely?


Why is Islamic education intended only for male children?

Islamic education was never intended ONLY for male children, please check your questions before you ask them, Islam is for everyone, male or female and it is suitable for any person any place at any time.


Should you hibernate the male corn snake only or the female corn snake only?

the both of them male and feamale


How does the family units receive their children?

They have to apply to receive children which can be accepted or denied . They can only have one male and female .


What does a woman have that can influence a man to make a bad decision?

The only thing I can think of is Shakespeare's Macbeth, where the main character (Macbeth)'s wife influences her husband to kill. You should look for the perswasive techniques Lady Macbeth uses to achieve this.


Did Lady Macbeth have any children?

Yes, Lady Macbeth (b. c. 1015) had children. No child actually made an appearance in the Shakespearean play. But Macbeth's Lady referred to a child, in Act 1 Scene 7 Lines 54-55.That reference was indeed accurate, according to genealogical and historical records. Gruoch ingen Boite was married twice. Her first husband was Gille Coemgain (d. 1032), who may have been responsible for the murder of Macbeth's father, Findlaech mac Ruaidri (d. 1020). From that first marriage, she had at least one known child, Lulach macGille Coemgain.Gruoch then took as her second husband Macbeth (c. 1014-August 15, 1057), and came to be called Gruoch, Lady Macbeth. She had no known children from her second marriage. As Queen Gruoch's only child and son, the subsequent King Lulach (d. March 17, 1058) therefore succeeded his stepfather, Macbeth, as King of Scotland.


Read this passage MACBETH. Bring forth men-children only For thy undaunted mettle should compose Nothing but males. Will it not be received When we have mark'd with blood those sleepy two Of his own c?

He has decided to kill the king- Apex


Who does Macbeth kill in the play Macbeth?

The Macbeth family victim list is: King Duncan, his two chamberlains, Banquo, a fellow general, but his son escapes, Lady Macduff and her children (Lady Macduff's murder is not shown onstage to emphasize the horror of killing children) Macbeth also kills young Siward towards the end


Should heterosexual men answer questions about male homosexuality?

Since all heterosexual men that are only attracted to the opposite sex have a fear male homosexuality, only gay men and only bisexual men and only men that have bisexual tendencies should be allowed to answer questions about male homosexuality.