Yes, and they frequently did. For example, Shakespeare left most of his property to women: his wife (who had an entitlement to the estate through dower law but was also given a gift in the will), his two daughters (one of whom was an executrix of the will) and his sister Joan Hart, to whom he gave their childhood home.
They were not allowed to be godfather to someone's children.
None. It was against the law for women to act in this time in history.
0 because women were not allowed to be actors because it was "too revealing"
No, not unless you count Shakespeare's Globe Theatre which was built in 1997. Women in England did not act on stage until 1660. The first Globe burned down in 1613 and the second one was torn down in 1644.
Men and boys played these parts. It was considered indecent for women to appear on stage.
In Shakespearian times if a woman was an only child they could inherit their father's property and if their Husband died they could own the property that their Husband had ouwned
Woman could own and inherit property testify in court.
Both could inherit and own property.
Women could inherit property from more than one husband.
Aztec women could own property, including land and goods. They could inherit property from their family members or acquire it through their own means. However, their property rights were generally subject to the authority of male relatives or husbands.
Entails permitted women to inherit estate in England starting in the 19th century with the passage of laws like the Married Women's Property Acts in the 19th century. These laws gradually expanded women's property rights, allowing them to inherit and own land.
No, because women back then didn't have any rights.
Mexican women fell under the Spanish Community Property Law--Spanish women could legally own separate property, and write legally-binding wills for that property, from the time they first settled in the Americas in the 1500's.
They could not vote own land and when they devorced their husbands got the house and the kids
Inheritance of property is not determined based on a person's gender. It is decided based on if there was a will present and any spoken agreements of the land owner.
There is no single answer to your question because property rights are generally governed by state law. To determine what property rights women had in early America you would need to do state by state research. Generally, in Colonial America, a woman's property was under the control of her husband or father. Massachusetts was one of the first jurisdictions that passed law in 1787 allowing married women to own property under certain circumstances. Single women could inherit land. Once a single woman married, the land would come under the control of her husband. Women were not given substantial property rights in all states until around 1900. You can start your research at the link provided below.
Women were responsible for bringing up children and looking after their husbands. They did not have the right to vote or to stand for public office. Rich women could inherit money or property, own property, conduct business and lend money. This was unusual in ancient societies