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He must have sold his earliest plays directly to various playing companies. Playwrights in Shakespeare's day were not particularly well-paid as a rule, and many writers who relied on writing to live lived and died in poverty (Thomas Dekker for one).
But Shakespeare was also an actor and later had an interest in the profits of the theatre company. What that meant was that he did not get paid money for the plays he wrote--he was the house playwright, and his plays automatically became the property of the company. But because they were good plays, and popular plays, people wanted to come to see them, and that meant more money at the box office and that meant more profits for the sharers in the company. So Shakespeare did make money out of his plays, and so did Burbage and Heminges and all the other sharers. And they all made money out of Burbage's acting as well.
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Why did William Shakespeare write MacBeth?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays for the same reason--to make money. It was his job.
Did Shakespeare make money with writing plays?
He must have sold his earliest plays directly to various playing companies. Playwrights in Shakespeare's day were not particularly well-paid as a rule, and many writers who relied on writing to live lived and died in poverty (Thomas Dekker for one).But Shakespeare was also an actor and later had an interest in the profits of the theatre company. What that meant was that he did not get paid money for the plays he wrote--he was the house playwright, and his plays automatically became the property of the company. But because they were good plays, and popular plays, people wanted to come to see them, and that meant more money at the box office and that meant more profits for the sharers in the company. So Shakespeare did make money out of his plays, and so did Burbage and Heminges and all the other sharers. And they all made money out of Burbage's acting as well.
Did Shakespeare make any money from his plays'?
yes because it was his job. :D
What got William Shakespeare into writing plays?
One surmises that he was involved in the theatre scene and that someone noticed that he was a dab hand with a sonnet, and suggested that he could make a few extra shillings by writing a play. But this is only a plausible suggestion; there is no evidence of how or when Shakespeare started writing plays.
Why did shakespeare write the two gentlemen of Verona?
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
Why did William Shakespeare write MacBeth?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays for the same reason--to make money. It was his job.
Why did William Shakespeare start write plays?
To make money.
What was the purpose that William Shakespeare wrote his plays?
Shakespeare wrote his plays to make money. He was part owner of a theatre company and they made more money if they had new plays and good plays to put on. Shakespeare was able to provide the company with both.
Did Shakespeare make money with writing plays?
He must have sold his earliest plays directly to various playing companies. Playwrights in Shakespeare's day were not particularly well-paid as a rule, and many writers who relied on writing to live lived and died in poverty (Thomas Dekker for one).But Shakespeare was also an actor and later had an interest in the profits of the theatre company. What that meant was that he did not get paid money for the plays he wrote--he was the house playwright, and his plays automatically became the property of the company. But because they were good plays, and popular plays, people wanted to come to see them, and that meant more money at the box office and that meant more profits for the sharers in the company. So Shakespeare did make money out of his plays, and so did Burbage and Heminges and all the other sharers. And they all made money out of Burbage's acting as well.
Why did William shakespeare want to write plays?
To make money, mostly. It was his job.
Was shakespeare's main reason to write plays was to make money?
Yes. It was his job.
Did Shakespeare make any money from his plays'?
yes because it was his job. :D
What got William Shakespeare into writing plays?
One surmises that he was involved in the theatre scene and that someone noticed that he was a dab hand with a sonnet, and suggested that he could make a few extra shillings by writing a play. But this is only a plausible suggestion; there is no evidence of how or when Shakespeare started writing plays.
Why did shakespeare write the two gentlemen of Verona?
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
Where did William Shakespeare live when he wrote his first play?
We presume that Shakespeare did not start writing plays until after he moved to London to make a living in the entertainment world.
Why was it important for Shakespeare to make his plays as exciting as possible?
Money: He was in the business of filling seats at the playhouse.
What was the Shakespeare theatre all about?
It was all about putting on plays for the public to make money for the players and writers.
