No.
It is a derivation from a like titled poem by Gerard Manley Hopkins, "The Child is Father to the Man," published 1 January 1923:
The Child is father to the manThe Child is father to the man.How can he be? The words are wild.
Suck any sense from that who can:
'The child is father to the man.'
No; what the poet did write ran,
'The man is father to the child.'
'The child is father to the man!'
How can he be? The words are wild.
It is a misquoting of a line from the William Wordsworth poem, "My Heart Leaps Up When I Behold," written 26 March 1802:
My Heart Leaps Up When I BeholdMy heart leaps up when I beholdA rainbow in the sky;
So was it when my life began;
So is it now I am a man;
So be it when I shall grow old,
Or let me die!
The Child is father of the Man ;
And I could wish my days to be
Bound each to each by natural piety.
Since he was an absentee father a lot of the time, a lot of people would say that makes him a bad father.
The man wanted to sleep, because his child couldn't lie down.
Kalidasa is called as India's Shakespeare. We hear this statement whenever people speak about Kalidasa. But logically speaking Kalidasa's period is 4-5th Century AD and Shakespeare's period is 1564 - 1616. Though Shakespeare is a great poet, many centuries before Kalidasa has written great plays, poems. If required let Britishers call Shakespeare as "British Kalidasa/England's Kalidasa". But Indian's will not accept this statement as it is wrong. Note: If father and son has resemblence we say "You look like your father", we don't say his father that "you look like your son". Hope this is the proper statement which clears above statements.
No he wasn't the only child. He had a sister called Joan, who unfortunately died from bubonic plague, at two months. Then Margaret, William, and Gilbert. Another baby was born, and she was called Joan, she died at a reasonable age of 77. Then Anne, Richard and Edmund. Anne died at the age of seven, because of bubonic plague. For further information visit the related link.
There is no tangible evidence to say what Shakespeare's favorite character was.
Since he was an absentee father a lot of the time, a lot of people would say that makes him a bad father.
As the father has joint legal custody of the child he can not say he does not want the child at the paramour.
The father has no say in it. The government determines what the requirements for citizenship are. If the rules say the child gets the citizenship of the father, it's a done deal. Dad doesn't get to decide.
I would say yes as long he is the biological father,and neither of them have any "strikes" against them concerning the welfare of the child in question,or any other child.
I'm not sure about Louisiana but many states say that the man who is married to the women is the father no matter if he is the biological father or not so he would have the rights to the child example: if they were to divorce he would be responsible for supporting the child in less he decided to sign over all of his rights to the child in which case he would no longer have rights to claim that child or visit
"A fool thinks himself to be wise, but a wise man knows himself to be a fool". -Shakespeare
Yes, I'd say the father has the right to know who his child is (should it be true of course).
By far, i would say father. By far, i would say father.
he was a famous man long ago and had many wise words to say
Le papa de l'enfant.
He got trins!!
A father should respond honestly when he asked by a man for his daughters hand in marriage. If the father approves of the man then he should accept the proposal but if he does not like the man then he should say no.