Constantly. Choruses, Soliloquys and long set speeches are all monologues.
Yes he did.
Shakespeare and his contemporaries often used blank verse (unrhymed iambic pentameter) for the dialogue in their plays.
His plays were based on stories he had read or plays he had seen. Shakespeare rarely created an original plot--he just made pre-existing plots so much better.
Yes, the proof that Shakespeare wrote his plays is as good as that for any of his contemporaries. First of all, we know that the Stratford man was the same person as the member of the King's Men acting company because one of the actors left things to Shakespeare in his will and Shakespeare left things in his will to his fellow actors Burbage, Heminges and Condell. Shakespeare's name appears all over the records of the King's Men, so obviously he was the same man. After Shakespeare became a member of the Lord Chamberlain's Men, his plays were exclusively performed by this company, showing that the author was someone associated with the company. What is more, the plays were consistently attributed to Shakespeare during his lifetime by the numerous publishers that published them, with no recorded protest from Shakespeare, the King's Men or anyone else. (Shakespeare's protest when the publisher Jaggard published Thomas Heywood's poetry as Shakespeare's was duly recorded by Heywood in 1612) Believing that the plays were not written by Shakespeare either involves believing that the entire theatrical community of the time was involved in a massive conspiracy to hide the true authorship of the plays (which is impossible) or that someone else wrote the plays and secretly gave them to Shakespeare to use as his own (which is not only highly unlikely, but is as likely for any other author at any time. How do you know whether or not Stephanie Meyers is secretly fronting for some other author?)
Queen Elizabeth I provided playhouses for Shakespeare so that his plays would be used and he would get the money for the use of it.
No, simply.
No, women were not on his plays.
Yes he did.
I use Sparknotes.com
blank verse
in Romeo and Juliet, he used empty bottles and maybe toy daggers!
Voltaire did not directly use Shakespeare as a source for his plays, but he was influenced by Shakespeare's work and admired his dramatic style. Voltaire criticized Shakespeare's use of emotional excess and his unconventional narrative techniques, yet he recognized the impact of Shakespeare on the theatrical landscape. In his own plays, Voltaire sought to blend classical traditions with new ideas, drawing from various influences, including Shakespeare's emphasis on character and human emotion.
I'd use the word entertaining.
One of the great advantage of the concept of writing, developed about 5000 years ago, is that you can still read and use the words of someone who is dead. Thus you can still read Jane Austen's novels long after Jane has died. Shakespeare does not have to be alive for you to perform his plays because they were written down.Shakespeare's plays were not performed in order to make Shakespeare happy. People did not say in 1616, "Thank heavens Shakespeare is dead so we don't have to perform his plays any more." On the contrary, they performed and continue to perform Shakespeare's plays because they are the best plays ever written in the English language. Shakespeare's death did not change that.
Shakespeare and his contemporaries often used blank verse (unrhymed iambic pentameter) for the dialogue in their plays.
Storms appear most prominently in the plays The Tempest and King Lear.
in musicals, the songs are the monologues.