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17 pounds a play apparently
Connor Lakin
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∙ 10y agoShakespeare made approximately £20 (in instalments) for writing a play at his peak. The instalments would probably be £10 advance, then £5 for delivery of Acts Four and Five and £5 once the play was performed. This is based on some payments between Henslowe and other playwrights like Jonson and Marlowe. Shakespeare probably only got £12-£15 for his earlier plays.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoIt has been said on many sites that he made 700m per playwright. He was the first billonare.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoit is said he made $50 per play.
Wiki User
∙ 13y agoHe was paid approximately $200.
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∙ 12y ago17 pounds a play apparently
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago1 penny to get in so you do the math
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Why did shakespeare write the two gentlemen of Verona?
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
Why did wiilliam shakespeare create his first play?
Shakespeare wrote his first play for the same reason he wrote all of them--for money.
What were Shakespeare's intentions for the play A Midsummer Night's Dream?
It was his job. He wrote plays for a living. What gave him the idea for this particular play is a bit of a mystery. Unlike most of his plays, it was not closely based on a book or play by someone else. At least, not one that we know of. The plot contains a hodge-podge of Greek myth (Theseus and Hippolyta), German fairy legends (Oberon), English folk tales (Puck), and working class humour.
Shakespeare play much about nothing?
That would be "Much Ado About Nothing."
How much did it cost a groundling to see a Shakespeare play?
A penny
How much money did a shakespeare play make?
It made approxamitely $50.
Why did shakespeare write the two gentlemen of Verona?
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
Why was the tempest written?
Shakespeare wrote plays because it was part of his job. A good play put bums on seats, which meant more money for the partners in the theatre company putting on the play (Shakespeare was one of them) as well as more money for the owners of the theatre building (Shakespeare was one of them also). All of Shakespeare's plays were written to make money for Shakespeare.
Why did wiilliam shakespeare create his first play?
Shakespeare wrote his first play for the same reason he wrote all of them--for money.
What made shakespeare want to write Romeo and Juliet?
It sounded like a good idea for a play when he read Brooke's poem, and a good play would make him money.
What were Shakespeare's intentions for the play A Midsummer Night's Dream?
It was his job. He wrote plays for a living. What gave him the idea for this particular play is a bit of a mystery. Unlike most of his plays, it was not closely based on a book or play by someone else. At least, not one that we know of. The plot contains a hodge-podge of Greek myth (Theseus and Hippolyta), German fairy legends (Oberon), English folk tales (Puck), and working class humour.
What was the play that gave shakespeare the most money?
We can't know for sure. They didn't keep records of attendance. And it is the play which brought in the largest crowds for the longest time which made the company, and thus Shakespeare, the most money.
Shakespeare play much about nothing?
That would be "Much Ado About Nothing."
How much money does a play therapist earn?
Hi I would like to know how much does a play therapist make a year?
What plays plays Shakespeare rich?
Any play which his theatre company performed. Shakespeare did not make money from the writing of plays, not even from the publication of the scripts. He made his money when they were performed. A successful play meant lots of people coming to the theatre and paying admission, part of which went to the actors (including Shakespeare), another larger part to the "sharers" of the Theatre company (after 1594, also including Shakespeare) and another bigger part of which went to the theatre owners (after 1599, including Shakespeare again). No part of the take went to the author. Thus Shakespeare made as much money out of one of Jonson's or Middleton's plays as he did out of one of his own. However, Shakespeare's plays were often the most popular, and Henry IV Part 1 was a smash hit which made all of the sharers very wealthy.
What plays made Shakespeare rich?
Any play which his theatre company performed. Shakespeare did not make money from the writing of plays, not even from the publication of the scripts. He made his money when they were performed. A successful play meant lots of people coming to the theatre and paying admission, part of which went to the actors (including Shakespeare), another larger part to the "sharers" of the Theatre company (after 1594, also including Shakespeare) and another bigger part of which went to the theatre owners (after 1599, including Shakespeare again). No part of the take went to the author. Thus Shakespeare made as much money out of one of Jonson's or Middleton's plays as he did out of one of his own. However, Shakespeare's plays were often the most popular, and Henry IV Part 1 was a smash hit which made all of the sharers very wealthy.
How much did it cost a groundling to see a Shakespeare play?
A penny
