witchcraft was seen as a crime or evil (what ever floats your boat)
Javeik
No. There had been an increase in witchhunting in Scotland around 1590, fifteen years before Macbeth was written. King James himself wrote a book about witchcraft in 1597. But although there were periodic trials of witches, which were unusual enough to make the news big time, there was no widespread increase or witchhunt mania. Such a thing did not occur in England until the Witchfinder General turned up in 1643 or so.
King James was obsessed with witches, and he even wrote a book about them, so Shakespeare added them to the play Also, it was believed that king James was a descendant of Banquo, so Shakespeare changed history so that Banquo did not assist in the murder of Duncan
Macbeth and lady Macbeth try to avoid suspicion by getting into their pajamas after committing the murder so people will think they were asleep all the time.
Sunday Evening down at the pub
The book "A Discovery of Witchcraft" was written by Reginald Scot and first published in 1584. It is a skeptical examination of witchcraft and the witch trials of the time.
Javeik
Witches tend to be women. In Shakespeare's time, I assume that women were witches since Hecate is a woman who is goddess of witchcraft. I don't believe there's any report of a man being accused of witchcraft and being killed for it.
No. There had been an increase in witchhunting in Scotland around 1590, fifteen years before Macbeth was written. King James himself wrote a book about witchcraft in 1597. But although there were periodic trials of witches, which were unusual enough to make the news big time, there was no widespread increase or witchhunt mania. Such a thing did not occur in England until the Witchfinder General turned up in 1643 or so.
Macbeth was believed to have been written sometime between 1603 - 1607, and the first recorded report of its peformance was 1611. Elizabeth I died in 1603, and James I then came to the throne, reigning until 1625.
Well, it depends on your point of view. If you call tessering a form of witchcraft, then yes, it does have witchcraft. If you call eating fake dinners a form of witchcraft, then the book does have witchcraft. It's all up to you, and what you believe everything is about.
The King of England and the King of Scotland were the same person. And they still are.
During the time that Macbeth was written a lot of words were abbreviated. Just as today we have words such as "don't" meaning "do not" and "would've" meaning "would have" "i'" is another contraction meaning "in". Ex. He was i' the bathroom. - He was in the bathroom.
Same reason your question and this answer is written in modern English. It was the version of English they had at the time. There have been many different versions of the English Language.
Lady Macbeth talked Macbeth into killing his cousin, King Duncan of Scotland, who was a guest in his house at the time.
King James was obsessed with witches, and he even wrote a book about them, so Shakespeare added them to the play Also, it was believed that king James was a descendant of Banquo, so Shakespeare changed history so that Banquo did not assist in the murder of Duncan
Yes.