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Yes. Shakespeare was not the owner of the right to publish his plays. His position was rather like that of someone hired by a television network to write a script for a television show. The script belongs to the network, not the writer. In the same way, Shakespeare's scripts belonged to the King's Men. Some of the Quarto editions published during his lifetime seem to be pirate copies and others seem to be copies published by the company. The Folio, published in 1623, was published by two members of the company, not by Shakespeare's residuary legatees John and Susanna Hall.
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What is shakespeare first volume of plays titled?
Some of Shakespeare's plays had been published individually during his lifetime but in 1623 two of his friends decided to publish a collection of as many of his plays as they could get their hands on. This collection is usually called the First Folio but its real title is "Mr. William Shakespeares Comedies, Histories & Tragedies Published according to the True Originall Copies"
When was 'Macbeth' first performed?
In Shakespeare's era the demand for new entertainment was huge, so the play would have been performed immediately following it's completion. With Macbeth this was particularly true, since King James I was extremely interested in sorcery and witchcraft, having written his own book Daemonologie (Demonology) -- Macbeth's success was assured. Shakespeare never published any of his plays, but 18 unauthorised versions of his plays were published during his lifetime (there were no copyright laws in those days). Macbeth was first performed in 1605 and was a huge success.
Is there any proof that Shakespeare wrote his plays?
Yes, the proof that Shakespeare wrote his plays is as good as that for any of his contemporaries. First of all, we know that the Stratford man was the same person as the member of the King's Men acting company because one of the actors left things to Shakespeare in his will and Shakespeare left things in his will to his fellow actors Burbage, Heminges and Condell. Shakespeare's name appears all over the records of the King's Men, so obviously he was the same man. After Shakespeare became a member of the Lord Chamberlain's Men, his plays were exclusively performed by this company, showing that the author was someone associated with the company. What is more, the plays were consistently attributed to Shakespeare during his lifetime by the numerous publishers that published them, with no recorded protest from Shakespeare, the King's Men or anyone else. (Shakespeare's protest when the publisher Jaggard published Thomas Heywood's poetry as Shakespeare's was duly recorded by Heywood in 1612) Believing that the plays were not written by Shakespeare either involves believing that the entire theatrical community of the time was involved in a massive conspiracy to hide the true authorship of the plays (which is impossible) or that someone else wrote the plays and secretly gave them to Shakespeare to use as his own (which is not only highly unlikely, but is as likely for any other author at any time. How do you know whether or not Stephanie Meyers is secretly fronting for some other author?)
Is this true Shakespeare never borrowed plots or lines of verse from other writers?
false.
Who says ''The course of true love''?
The quote is, "The course of true love never did run smooth," and is from Shakespeare's A Midsummer Night's Dream, Act I, Scene i.
What is shakespeare first volume of plays titled?
Some of Shakespeare's plays had been published individually during his lifetime but in 1623 two of his friends decided to publish a collection of as many of his plays as they could get their hands on. This collection is usually called the First Folio but its real title is "Mr. William Shakespeares Comedies, Histories & Tragedies Published according to the True Originall Copies"
Did Shakespeare actually write the plays that everyone thinks he did?
All of the evidence we have goes to say that he did. That is to say, all of the plays were published either without an author's name or with Shakespeare's name on them, and never with anyone else's name. They were exclusively performed by theatrical companies of which the actor William Shakespeare was a member, and were published by members of that company. Records of the same plays being played at court and elsewhere credit William Shakespeare with having written them. And never anyone else. On the other hand there is no evidence that anyone other than William Shakespeare of Stratford, the actor with the King's Men, wrote those plays. Nobody ever credits them to anyone else. There was nobody else by the name of William Shakespeare that we know of and nobody else called Shakespeare who was a writer. People did not write plays under a pseudonym in those days, and nobody at that time ever suggested that "William Shakespeare" was a pseudonym. You may say that is not absolute proof. Perhaps not, but absolute proof is not required for anything which we regularly accept as true. The proof that Shakespeare did indeed write what he is credited with is more than sufficient for us to accept it as fact.
When was 'Macbeth' first performed?
In Shakespeare's era the demand for new entertainment was huge, so the play would have been performed immediately following it's completion. With Macbeth this was particularly true, since King James I was extremely interested in sorcery and witchcraft, having written his own book Daemonologie (Demonology) -- Macbeth's success was assured. Shakespeare never published any of his plays, but 18 unauthorised versions of his plays were published during his lifetime (there were no copyright laws in those days). Macbeth was first performed in 1605 and was a huge success.
Is there any proof that Shakespeare wrote his plays?
Yes, the proof that Shakespeare wrote his plays is as good as that for any of his contemporaries. First of all, we know that the Stratford man was the same person as the member of the King's Men acting company because one of the actors left things to Shakespeare in his will and Shakespeare left things in his will to his fellow actors Burbage, Heminges and Condell. Shakespeare's name appears all over the records of the King's Men, so obviously he was the same man. After Shakespeare became a member of the Lord Chamberlain's Men, his plays were exclusively performed by this company, showing that the author was someone associated with the company. What is more, the plays were consistently attributed to Shakespeare during his lifetime by the numerous publishers that published them, with no recorded protest from Shakespeare, the King's Men or anyone else. (Shakespeare's protest when the publisher Jaggard published Thomas Heywood's poetry as Shakespeare's was duly recorded by Heywood in 1612) Believing that the plays were not written by Shakespeare either involves believing that the entire theatrical community of the time was involved in a massive conspiracy to hide the true authorship of the plays (which is impossible) or that someone else wrote the plays and secretly gave them to Shakespeare to use as his own (which is not only highly unlikely, but is as likely for any other author at any time. How do you know whether or not Stephanie Meyers is secretly fronting for some other author?)
Is this true Shakespeare never borrowed plots or lines of verse from other writers?
false.
Is it true that Shakespeare attributed his plays to a girl called D'Arcy?
No he did not. He attributed his plays to his wife Anne Hathaway and others like his son Hamnet, who died
Who says ''The course of true love''?
The quote is, "The course of true love never did run smooth," and is from Shakespeare's A Midsummer Night's Dream, Act I, Scene i.
What did William shakespeare mean when he said that theater was a true reflection of life?
Actually, Shakespeare never said the theater was a true reflection of life. The quote is "All the world's a stage / And all the men and women merely players. / They have their exits and their entrances / And one man in his time plays many parts." That said, though Shakespeare is comparing theater to life, the comparison works both ways. He is using the theater as a way to break life down into its simplest phases, assuming that what is on the stage is, in effect, a true reflection of life.
What helps to explain why it is difficult to determine authorship of some works attributed to shakespeare?
Many plays in Shakespeare's day were published without any information about the author whatsoever. They were anonymous. This is true of Shakespeare's own plays early in his career. But even if they were published anonymously, they still had to be written by someone, and it is a great game among academics to try to guess the author. In some cases, Edward III for example, Shakespeare has been proposed as the author. But the only kind of evidence that can be advanced in support of this kind of claim is data about spelling or word choice which is frequently inconclusive, and ideas about style which are quite subjective. Before word counting became the rage (it was not feasible without computers), arguments about authorship of anonymous plays were totally based on style and, though heated, were not very helpful.Even those plays which were printed with Shakespeare's name on them are still up for scrutiny. Some are generally considered to be by someone else, others are generally thought to be Shakespeare's. For many years in the Victorian era and after, scholars denied that the play Titus Andronicus was written by Shakespeare, because they didn't like how gory and over-the-top it was. And this is one of the plays which appeared in the First Folio and a bunch of quartos under Shakespeare's name, and is associated with his company in Henslowe's Diary, for example.
Edwards never intended for Personal Narrative to be published because he wrote it as an extremely personal meditation true or false?
Edwards never intended for Personal Narrative to be published because he wrote it as an extremely personal meditation.
What is the name of the first edition of Shakespeare works and how many copies of it still exist?
It's called the First Folio, although its official name was "Mr William Shakespeares Comedies Histories & Tragedies published according to the true originall copies". It was not really a Complete Works as it contained just plays, not the poems or sonnets. It included 36 of the 38 plays generally believed to have been written by Shakespeare. About 1000 copies were printed; 238 remain, a remarkably high number.
What aspects of Marc Antony are true in the play?
I'm assuming that you mean the plays by William Shakespeare. Very few of the aspects of the real Marc Antony are true in the plays. This is because a play is a work of fiction, a work that is meant to entertain, not educate. True, Shakespeare used the Lives of Plutarch for his inspiration, and for the basic outline of his characters, but he also used artistic licence in either giving or reducing aspects of his character's personalities and also the events occurring.
