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Shakespeare wrote all of his plays, although he sometimes had help. The evidence for this is overwhelming, and there is no evidence to the contrary. However, Shakespeare wrote hardly any of the stories those plays are based on. He used stories he had read in books and changed them slightly to make them better plays. And of course he put wonderful words into the mouths of the characters. But he did not make up stories, with only a few exceptions--the plots of A Midsummer Night's Dream and The Tempest appear to be original.
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Who is the real writer of the Shakespeare plays and sonnets?
William Shakespeare wrote all the plays and sonnets, they have been saying that bard wrote them but William shakespeare fact wrote all of them.
Why did wiilliam shakespeare create his first play?
Shakespeare wrote his first play for the same reason he wrote all of them--for money.
Why did William Shakespeare write MacBeth?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays for the same reason--to make money. It was his job.
Why did shakespeare write the two gentlemen of Verona?
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
What country did William Shakespeare write his plays?
Shakespeare wrote all his plays in England. They are not all set in England, though.
What other stories did William Shakespeare write apart from Romeo and Juliet?
Shakespeare wrote at least thirty-eight plays and two narrative poems which all tell stories. In fact, the plays often tell two or more stories at the same time. You can find summaries of the stories in an encyclopedia or a book about Shakespeare or in a book like Lamb's Tales from Shakespeare which tells them in a form designed for Victorian children.
Who is the real writer of the Shakespeare plays and sonnets?
William Shakespeare wrote all the plays and sonnets, they have been saying that bard wrote them but William shakespeare fact wrote all of them.
Why did wiilliam shakespeare create his first play?
Shakespeare wrote his first play for the same reason he wrote all of them--for money.
Why did William Shakespeare write MacBeth?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays for the same reason--to make money. It was his job.
Why did shakespeare write the two gentlemen of Verona?
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
What is Shakespeare based on?
I think you are labouring under the misapprehension that William Shakespeare wrote one thing. He didn't. He wrote many things, some of which are not based on anything, and others are based on classical stories, history, myth, other plays, and even current events. Although people sometimes use the word "Shakespeare" to describe all or some of Shakespeare's works, its use in this context is incorrect. Shakespeare is the man's name; if you want to talk about his works, use their names.
What country did William Shakespeare write his plays?
Shakespeare wrote all his plays in England. They are not all set in England, though.
Who wrote all's well that ends well?
William Shakespeare
Who wrote All's Well That Ends Well?
William Shakespeare
Why do people miss Shakespeare?
people miss William Shakespeare because of all the plays he wrote .xxxxxx(:
What is similar about all the plays that shakespeare wrote?
They are all divided into five acts.
Where did Shakespeare write some of his plays?
Shakespeare wrote all of his plays in London. Where exactly in London is an open question.
