In all likelihood, yes, although we do not have records of performances of some of the plays in Shakespeare's lifetime. Since the First Folio was taken from the collection of scripts held by the King's Men after Shakespeare's death, it seems likely that all of them had been performed, otherwise why would the company have the scripts? Of the two plays now agreed to be Shakespeare's which were not in the First Folio, Pericles was published in Quarto form during Shakespeare's lifetime (and no play was published before it was performed) and references in other works suggest that Two Noble Kinsmen was performed in 1613 or 1614.
William Shakespeare's plays were performed in 'The Globe Theatre'.
The Globe Theater
Actors. Before 1660, only actors and no actresses performed in the plays.
Newington Butts Theatre
With the exception of the period between 1640 and 1660 or so, Shakespeare's plays have been continuously performed in London since about 1590 or so.
William Shakespeare's plays were performed in 'The Globe Theatre'.
The Globe Theater
Actors. Before 1660, only actors and no actresses performed in the plays.
The Globe Theatre.
the global theater
Newington Butts Theatre
The Globe Theatre
With the exception of the period between 1640 and 1660 or so, Shakespeare's plays have been continuously performed in London since about 1590 or so.
none, only men could be in plays during the time that Shakespeare was around.
No. We know of at least one, Sir Thomas More, that he and his collaborators could not get past the censors.
Hamlet is the most performed play. As far as I know, none have been prefoomed.
Yes, certainly. Shakespeare's company was sponsored by the king, and there are records of a number of his plays being performed at court.