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A prologue is a speech given before the start of the play. The person delivering the prologue speaks it directly to the audience and never interacts with anyone on stage. Shakespeare sometimes gave the prologue a name (he is the poet Gower in Pericles and the abstraction Rumour in Henry IV Part II) but the prologue is not a character in the play and is not acting a part.

Shakespeare occasionally placed prologues at other places in the play. There are several in Henry V, one before Act 2 of Romeo and Juliet, and in A Winter's Tale (which has no prologue at the beginning) Time comes on in the middle and tells the audience that sixteen years have passed and that the baby the audience saw in the last act is now a grown woman.

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Q: What does the prologue from shakespeare mean?
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Related questions

What is the name of a Shakespeare play that has a prologue?

Romeo and Juliet


The Prologue in Romeo and Juliet serves to?

reveal the plot, get the groundlings interested, and allow Shakespeare to compose a sonnet


What is true of Shakespeare's prologue to Romeo and juliette?

He occasionally borrowed in altered form plots and even lines of verse.


How does Shakespeare use personification to signal the turning of the plot form romance to tradgey?

shakespeare uses act 2 scene 3 to change the overall mood from two lovers story to two lovers who are going to die.Also read the prologue to understand what i mean.


Who gives the prologue in midsummer nights dream?

There is no prologue to Shakespeare's play. There is a prologue, however, to the play-within-a-play Pyramus and Thisbe, which is read by Peter Quince, by whom the play was written, produced and directed.


Which passage in Shakespeare's works is best known for foretelling the future?

Either the witches predicitions in Macbeth or the prologue to Romeo and Juliet


Did shakespeare really write the prologue to Romeo and Juliet There is some question about the authorship since it doesn't appear in the Folio of 1623?

The authorship of the prologue to Romeo and Juliet is attributed to Shakespeare based on early printed versions of the play. While it doesn't appear in the First Folio of 1623, many scholars believe it was likely part of the original play. The prologue's style and themes are consistent with Shakespeare's work, supporting his authorship.


What does the prologue say ends with rage between two families of Verona?

The prologue of Shakespeare's "Romeo and Juliet" states that the story ultimately results in the tragic ending of two families in Verona, the Capulets and the Montagues, consumed by their longstanding feud.


What did Shakespeare refer to the globe theatre as?

In the prologue to Henry V, Shakespeare talks about a "wooden O". But that was not the Globe Theatre he was talking about. Henry V was written before the Globe was built. He was probably talking about The Curtain Playhouse.


Who was involved in the Shakespeare ancient grudge?

Shakespeare didn't hold any grudges. He uses the phrase "ancient grudge" in the Prologue to Romeo and Juliet to describe the bad blood which was between the two families of Montague and Capulet.


Did William Shakespeare have it?

What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.


Why is Shakespeare mean?

Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.